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Estrogen increases HDL. Testosterone is converted into estrogen. Why doesnt testosterone increase HDL. Why is my logic wrong?
The woman in this vignette has an increased androgen:estrogen ratio, so the effects of testosterone on lipid levels will be greater than those of estrogen on lipid levels. Boards and beyond also states that testosterone causes an increase LDL, decreased HDL, and increase in hematocrit, which is why males with primary hypogonadism can present with anemia and the use of anabolic steroids can present with erythrocytosis.
Basically how I reasoned too; left kidney is close to tail, not body, of pancreas so that was out, duodenum is right side, stomach is not retroperitoneal, supraadrenal gland is superior to kidney, not immediately anterior; thus leaves splenic flexure (and its also left side)
How were we supposed to know this? Thanks for the clarification. I picked cecum because FA says Crohn is usually the terminal ileum and colon, so I figured cecum would be the most likely vs the descending colon.
Yeah that's what I thought at first too. Figuring it was a tricky question, I went with descending colon because 1) ascending and descending are retroperitoneal, so we know the latter is for sure right, and 2) cecum has it's own name (ie it's different than the ascending colon), so it probably isn't retroperitoneal in that regard. You can remember ascending and descending are retroperitoneal by remembering the greater omentum wraps around the transverse colon and from anatomy lab that there's a mesoappendix, mesocecum, etc (peritoneal)
α1 stimulation (via α1 agonist) constricts the bladder sphincter thereby, preventing sudden bouts of micturition during coughing/sneezing (abdominal stress).
I thought that B3 stimulation stopped urination
@sammyj98 B3 would facilitate bladder relaxation
@sammyj98- were you thinking of oxybutynin? (thats what I thought of!) According to FA, its used for urge incontinence not stress.
Nah he/she's talking about Beta-3 receptors which are Gs coupled. Gs increases cAMP thus it would cause smooth muscle relaxation -> bladder relaxation!
From Mayo: "There are no approved medications to specifically treat stress incontinence in the United States. The antidepressant duloxetine (Cymbalta) is used for the treatment of stress incontinence in Europe, however."
@hvancampen oxybutynin is an M3 muscarinic antagonist, not B3.
I thought about B3 agonist as well and got this wrong.
I think maybe B3 agonist can be used for bladder (URGENCY incontinence) where the main issue is detrusor over reactivity. In STRESS incontinence however the problem has nothing to do with detrusor, so we use α1 agonist to constrict the sphincter.
thanks for this explanation!
can any one explain to me why not lens ?
@macrophage95 Lens are an interal part of the refractive power of the eye. Without the lens the image would not be formed on the retina, thus leading to visual loss
Do anyone know why not choroid?
@qfever, no choroid would also be more detrimental to vision since it supplies blood to the retina
That random zanki card with colobomas associated with a failure of the choroid fissure to close messed me up
Seems like the key to this question is in what is omitted from the question stem: there is no mention of vision loss. If we assume there is no vision loss, then we can eliminate things associated with visual acuity (weird to think of in 2 week old but whatever): C, D, E, F. Also, by @hayayah 's reasoning, we eliminate E & F. If you reconsider the "asymmetric left pupil" then the only likely answer between A & B is B, Iris because the iris' central opening forms the pupil. I mistakenly put A because I was thinking of the choroid fissure and I read the question incorrectly - but it's a poorly worded question IMO.
Key here is that it doesn't affect vision- the only thing would be the iris. All others are used in vision. Don't have to know what a coloboma actually is.
The extra section of that Zanki card specifically says that a coloboma "can be seen in the iris, retina, choroid, or optic disc." Don't you dare talk trash about Zanki!
I don't think that's true, atresia literally means closure/absence of the lumen. I also got tripped up by the meconium but that could be just GI epithelium that was shed while in utero etc. I wouldn't change your definition of atresia.
one thing i would say is that in the case its due to failure of recanalization and not due to failure of formation like other types of atresia, so its possible that when it was de-canalized, it was not 100% closed allowing for some meconium to pass
tertius is an anterior muscle and overlays the dorsum of foot as it fans out to the toes. Does not relate to the lateral malleolus.
wrong question to post on agree with above
So, this says sympathetic also spared and hypothalamus also spared. Then what was wrong with this clinical case??
i think the sympathetic system is actually impaired b/c it's cut before it can "outflow"...at least it's the only way this makes sense
I agree. I think the question stem is saying the sympathetics were lesioned. Not that they were spared.
Not sure I understand why T is wrong, but DHT is correct.
I thought about this some more -- DHT forms external genitalia while T forms 'male genital ducts'. That's why the correct answer is DHT, not T, since the PT had +ext genitalia, but -internal genitalia. I was thinking that the PT had CAIS, but that would lead to testes only w/o male genital ducts. See FA2019 p608.
*I meant -ext genitalia, +int genitalia
T is wrong because you still need T to make the internal male organs which he has based off the MRI
there wasn't any loop diuretics...
A better way to think about it is insulin acts through MAPK which is a serine/threonine kinase
but glycine and proline are used in elastin too. Seems like you'd have to know about desmosine though that's not in first aid. Or maybe you can infer lysine since it's charged and is probably more important in maintaining stability?
the only thing we know about cross-linking is with LYSYL oxidase, hence lysine
it's confusing but i think b/c psoas acts to flex at the hip, staying completely flat would keep the muscle from being contracted. uworld is talking about the psoas test which would end up hyperextending the psoas muscle which would elicit pain (psoas test can also be done with active flexion against pressure which would explain the not wanting to flex).
First ideal to my mind is that:patient is a TB, TB prefer psoas
European implies northern european (they even specified the patient was a person of pallor), mediterranean descent is usually implied by country of origin or by straight-out writing 'mediterranean'.
The MCV is normal, thalassemias are microcytic anemias, that hint helps to rule out the thalassemias. However, I got it wrong, not sure why it cannot be a homozygous mutation in the ankyrin gene
@poisonivy, other commenter pointed out it's autosomal dominant so best answer would be heterozygous
honestly think this was a typo. hot trash
Assuming it was not a typo, how would the costophrenic angles be tender in this condition? ...From crying...?
it's saying upper vs lower lip. this pt has it on the nose
*Tubular atrophy, not cortical necrosis lol
same photo because the end gross pathology is the same. whether it's due to cancer or whatever the 4 year old boy had (some sort of obstruction IIRC) it ends with atrophy of the kidneys
free T4 wouldn't increase because it would be sensed by the pituitary and TSH would drop until free T4 normalizes