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Comments ...

 +4  (nbme24#13)

How do you know he has an incarcerated inguinal hernia and not fecal impaction?

sattanki  So as far as I understand, you don’t really get a bulging, defined abdominal mass with fecal impaction. Much more likely to see this with a hernia.
xxabi  Fecal impaction can be palpated in the abdomen, since it'd be accumulating in the rectum and colon, not the groin. Hope that helps!
pseudorosette  a little late but they also mention that the mass had bowel sounds hence it was an incarcerated bowel! :)

 +0  (nbme24#6)

Why are the IMA and SMA most likely to be affected in her condition?

sattanki  Again, not too sure, but I think they were describing a patient with chronic intestinal angina, which is classically from atherosclerosis of the IMA/SMA.
mcl  I was also thinking about which areas have crappy blood supply (watershed areas), which I assume would be worse off in the case of chronic mesenteric ischemia. If you look on page 357 of FA 2019, SMA & IMA at the splenic flexure is a watershed area; the other is rectosigmoid junction (sigmoid branch from IMA and superior rectal).

 +0  (nbme24#35)

Why is basal keratinocyte : suprabasal keratinocyte the cell junction that’s most likely to be affected? Is it because it’s the only answer that lists a junction between two keratinocytes?

sattanki  Not too sure on this one, but I interpreted the basal keartinocyte:suprabasal keratinocyte as the stratum spinosum region, which is known to have the most desmosomes.

 +0  (nbme24#40)

How do you know her pulmonary symptoms are due to pulmonary capillary leakage and not hypoventilation? Is pulmonary capillary leakage just another way of saying pulmonary edema?

sattanki  Hypoventilation in no way leads to pulmonary edema.
fenestrated  Hypoventilation would increased the PCO2

Subcomments ...

submitted by monoloco(49),

If anyone wouldn’t mind: How am I supposed to know that T1DM has a similar pedigree to schizophrenia? Teach me how to think, ples.

ankistruggles  I think they were getting at how developing T1DM and schizophrenia are both multifactorial. I don’t remember what the other choices were off the top of my head, but they had clear inheritance patterns. +2  

submitted by sattanki(27),

Does anyone have any idea on this question? Thought it was ALS.

ankistruggles  I thought it was ALS too (and I think it still could be?) but my thought process was that a lower motor neuron lesion would be the more specific answer. +  
sattanki  Yeah makes sense, just threw me off cause ALS is both lower and upper motor neuron problems. Corticospinal tract would have been a better answer if they described more upper motor neuron symptoms, but as you said, they only describe lower motor neuron symptoms. Thanks! +1  
mousie  Agree I thought ALS too but eliminated Peripheral nerves and LMN because I guess I thought they were the same thing ....??? Am I way off here or could someone maybe explain how they are different? Thanks! +  
baconpies  peripheral nerves would include motor & sensory, whereas LMN would be just motor +6  
seagull  Also, a LMN damage wouldn't include both hand and LE unless it was somehow diffuse as in Guil-barre syndrome. It would likely be specific to part of a body. right??? +  
charcot_bouchard  No. if it was a peri nerve it would be limited to a particular muscle or muscles. but since its lower motor neuron it is affecting more diffusely. Like u need to take down only few Lumbo sacral neuron to get lower extremity weakness. but if it was sciatic or CFN (peri nerve) it would be specific & symptom include Sensory. +  

The answer is hyporeflexia because the afferent arc of the muscle stretch reflex has to go through the dorsal rami and dorsal root ganglia. Dumb question, I know, but it’s the only answer that made sense. If you hurt the DRG, you not only lose afferent somatic sensory fibers, you also lose the sensory bodies involved in the various reflexes.

You can also get hyporeflexia from damaging the efferent neurons that innervate the muscle (like a LMN), but as you know these are in the anterior horn and ventral rami.

ankistruggles  Thanks! I agree with you. +  
brethren_md  Great explanation. +  
gonyyong  Agreed - I think I got this by thinking about tabes dorsalis (syphillis) and why it has hyporeflexia is due to dorsal root damage +  
duat98  I'm confused about why it wouldn't cause muscle atrophy. Isn't that a fever of LMN damage? +1  
charcot_bouchard  Muscle atrophy wont occur because alpha motor neuron is intact. Motor control of Corticospinal tract on this is intact. so no atrophy. u can move shiti/ But remeber muscle spindle that is responsible for INITIATING stretach reflex send Ia fibre to DRG from where it synapse with Alpha motor neuron. if DRG is damage ur muscle is fine but u cant initiate strech reflex. areflexia +