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I thought it was ALS too (and I think it still could be?) but my thought process was that a lower motor neuron lesion would be the more specific answer.
Yeah makes sense, just threw me off cause ALS is both lower and upper motor neuron problems. Corticospinal tract would have been a better answer if they described more upper motor neuron symptoms, but as you said, they only describe lower motor neuron symptoms. Thanks!
Agree I thought ALS too but eliminated Peripheral nerves and LMN because I guess I thought they were the same thing ....??? Am I way off here or could someone maybe explain how they are different?
peripheral nerves would include motor & sensory, whereas LMN would be just motor
Also, a LMN damage wouldn't include both hand and LE unless it was somehow diffuse as in Guil-barre syndrome. It would likely be specific to part of a body. right???
No. if it was a peri nerve it would be limited to a particular muscle or muscles. but since its lower motor neuron it is affecting more diffusely. Like u need to take down only few Lumbo sacral neuron to get lower extremity weakness. but if it was sciatic or CFN (peri nerve) it would be specific & symptom include Sensory.
I think it's ALS too. The correct answer choice here seems more based on specific wording:
the answer choice "Corticospinal tract in the spinal cord" wouldn't explain the tongue symptoms, since tongue motor innervation doesn't involve the corticospinal tract or the spinal cord (it's corticobulbar tract). This is a situation of "BEST answer choice," not "only correct answer choice."
Is there a situation where you would pick fibromuscular dysplasia over atherosclerosis if given both options? Thanks for your help!
Atherosclerosis affects PROXIMAL 1/3 of renal artery
Fibromuscular dysplasia affects DISTAL 2/3 of renal artery
Why is there ↓ size in both kidneys? This threw me off
@gonyyong : Maybe because narrowed renal a. d/t atherosclerosis led to renal hypoperfusion and decrease in size?
Fibromuscular dysplasia occurs in young females according to Sattar Pg 67, 2018.
Normally you will see Fibromuscular dysplasia in a young female 18-35 with high or resistant hypertension. She is older has a history type II DM predispose you to vascular disease and normal to moderate elevation in BP
@gonyyong there's bilateral renal artery stenosis. The decrease in size of both kidneys should be from atrophy due to lack of renal blood flow.
1 year ago, she did not present any physical or Lab abnormalities. This means she must not suffer fibromuscular dysplasia, otherwise she must have presented renal abnormalities for a long long time, or even before DM-2.
a little surprised that atherosclerosis leading to bilateral renal artery stenosis and shrunken kidneys could happen that quickly after everything was A okay the year prior