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Can someone explain why it is an increase in risk rather than a decrease?
Also, relative to what? Do we just assume it is relative to people who do not exercise regularly?
Uncertain about this, but I think from my memory of the question that the above explanation should say "relative risk" and not odds ratio. The relative risk is the (number women fractured/total exposed)/(number women fractured/total unexposed):: therefore, >1 means that more women got fractured when they exercised. (FA 2020, 258)