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Comments ...

 +0  (nbme23#6)

Episiotomy is cut from vagina to the perineal body for child birth

btl_nyc  But why is it external anal sphincter instead of bulbospongiosus? Aren't both attached to perineal body?
stinkysulfaeggs  Bulbospongiosus connects to either side of the perineal body. But if you go directly posterior rom the commissure you hit the anal sphincter
need_answers  I just think about how women say they done ripped their asshole while giving birth

 +1  (nbme24#32)

The suspensory ligament contains the ovarian vessels. Since that is not an answer choice, it has to be the ureters, as the ureters and the ovarian vessels run posterior to the ovaries (where the ovarian vessels branch off to be contained in the suspensory ligament).





Subcomments ...

submitted by wired-in(22),

Maintenance dose formula is (CssCltau)/F where Css is steady-state target plasma conc. of drug, Cl is clearance, tau is dosage interval & F is bioavailability.

Neither dosage interval nor bioavailability is given, so ignoring those & plugging in the numbers (careful to convert units to mg/kg/day): (12 ug/mL * 1 mg/1000 ug) * (0.09 L/hr/kg * 1000 mL/1 L * 24 hr/1 day) = 25.92 mg/kg/day

...which isn't any of the answer choices listed. They must have rounded 0.09 L/hr/kg to 0.1 L/hr/kg, and doing so gives exactly 28.8 mg/kg/day (choice C)

lispectedwumbologist  That's so infuriating I stared at this question for 20 minutes thinking I did something wrong +14  
hyoid  ^^^^^ +2  
seagull  lol..my math never worked either. I also just chose the closest number. also, screw this question author for doing that. +2  
praderwilli  Big mad +3  
ht3  this is why you never waste 7 minutes on a question.... because of shit like this +3  
yotsubato  Why the FUCK did they not just give us a clearance of 0.1 if they're going to fuckin round it anyways... +4  
bigjimbo  JOKES +  
cr  in ur maths, why did u put 24h/1day and not 1day/24h? if the given Cl was 0.09L/hr/kg. I know it just is a math question, but i´d appreciate if someone could explain it. +  
d_holles  LMAO games NBME plays +  
hyperfukus  magic math!!!!! how TF r we supposed to know when they round and when they don't like wtf im so pissed someone please tell me step isn't like this...with such precise decimal answers and a calculator fxn you would assume they wanted an actual answer! +  


submitted by sne(10),

I thought of it like when she gets up from a prone position, she is decreasing the blood going to her heart, so so the the myxoma causes more obstruction. Also myxomas cause tiny emboli, which can go to the systemic circulation causing mini thrombi in the brain and limbs.

bigjimbo  Left atrial myxoma can mimic mitral stenosis (thus diastolic murmur) +  
btl_nyc  RVOT obstruction would cause a systolic murmur that gets louder when standing, not diastolic. +1  


submitted by yotsubato(214),

So this question is describing a guy having difficulty externally rotating his arm while the forearm is flexed. He is able to supinate while his arm is extended (because of the supinator muscle and biceps). In the rotator cuff, only the infraspinatus performs external rotation, so that is the best choice.

Biceps works fine here

Subscapularis performs internal rotation.

Supraspinatus performs abduction

Triceps provides extension of forearm.

bigjimbo  technically rotator cuff infraspinatous and teres minor do ER (but teres minor is not a answer choice0 +2  


submitted by sympathetikey(259),

Dexamethosone suppresses ACTH = Pituitary Adenoma Dexamethosone fails to suppress ACTH = Ectopic ATCH (ex - Small Cell Lung Cancer)

sympathetikey  *ACTH +  
meningitis  If im not mistaken, Dexamethosone also fails to suppress ACTH = Adrenal Gland Adenoma +1  
therealloureed  I think an adrenal gland tumor would have low/undetectable ACTH? aka no dex suppression +1  
bigjimbo  Low ACTH = adrenal adenoma High ACTH, suppressible = Pituatary adenoma High ACTH, non-suppressible = SCLC +  


submitted by lsmarshall(181),

An experimental design or experimental study must have an intervention, by definition. Case-control studies are observational studies, not experimental. This question is technically incorrect. They wanted to amke a point that case-control studies are time and cost efficient since they don't require following patients over time or any resources besides reviewing/gathering information. Case series could not test this hypothesis.

Also, the wording "associated wit an increased risk" somewhat alludes to case-control studies only having the ability to find odds of an associations between exposure and outcome, but not establish causal relationship.

bigjimbo  classic nbme +  


submitted by haliburton(74),

Infliximab is a TNF-alpha inhibitor. from pubmed TNF-α has been demonstrated to have a central role in the host response against tuberculosis, including granuloma formation and the containment of disease (14,15). Notably, antibodies against TNF-α induced reactivation of tuberculosis

bigjimbo  TB can spread to psoas L1-2 often, which then goes to the actual L1-L2 vertebrae itself (Potts or osteomyelitis) +1  


submitted by m-ice(116),

The patient needs medical attention immediately, which eliminates obtaining a court order, or transferring her. A nurse does not have the same training and qualifications as a physician, so it would be inappropriate to ask them to examine the patient. Asking the hospital chaplain again could be inappropriate, and would take more time. Therefore, the best option among those given is to ask the patient if she will allow with her husband present.

sympathetikey  Garbage question. +13  
masonkingcobra  So two men is better than one apparently +4  
zoggybiscuits  GarBAGE! ? +  
bigjimbo  gárbágé +  
fulminant_life  this question is garbage. She doesnt want to be examined by a male how would the presence of her husband make any difference in that respect? +1  
dr.xx  I guess this is a garbage question because what hospital, even small and rural, does not have a female physician on staff. NBME take notice -- this is the 2010s not 1970s. https://images.app.goo.gl/xBL4cK31ta7nG4L39 +  
medpsychosis  The question here focuses on a specific issue which is the patient's religious conservative beliefs vs. urgency of the situation. A physician is required to respect the patient's autonomy while also balancing between beneficence and non-maleficence. The answer choice where the physician asks the patient if it would be ok to perform the exam with the husband present is an attempt to respect the conservative religious belief of the patient (not being exposed or alone with another man in the absence of her husband) while also allowing the physician to provide necessary medical treatment that could be life saving for her and or the child. Again, this allows for the patient to practice autonomy as she has the right to say no. +4  
sahusema  I showed this question to my parents and they said "this is the kind of stuff you study all day?" smh +2  
sherry  I totally agree this is a garbage question. I personally think there is more garbage question on new NBME forms than the previous ones...they can argue in any way. I feel like they were just trying to make people struggle on bad options when everybody knows what they were trying to ask. +  


Why is it not ovarian follicle cells? I thought the female analog of Sertoli and Leydig is theca/granulosa cells.

colonelred_  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
brethren_md  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
sympathetikey  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
s1q3t3  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
masonkingcobra  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +  
mcl  Wait, but did anyone mention that females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen??? +8  
mcl  But seriously though, pathology outlines says sertoli-leydig tumor "may be suspected clinically in a young patient presenting with a combination of virilization, elevated testosterone levels and ovarian / pelvic mass on imaging studies." As for follicle cell tumors, granulosa cell tumors usually occur in adults and would cause elevated levels of estrogens. Theca cell tumor would also primarily produce estrogens. Putting the links at the end since idk if they're gonna turn out right lol Link pathology outlines for sertoli leydig granulosa cell tumor theca cell tumor +5  
bigjimbo  LOL +  
fallenistand  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
medpsychosis  So after doing some intense research, UPtoDate, PubMed, an intense literature review on the topic I have come to the final conclusion that...... ...... ...... ...... Wait for it.... ..... ..... Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
charcot_bouchard  Hello, i just want to add that Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
giggidy  Hold up, so I'm confused - I read all the posts above but I still am unsure - are sertoli-leydig cells notorious for producing androgen? +  
subclaviansteele  Hold the phone.....Females can get sertoli leydig cell tumors which are notorious for producing androgen? TIL TL;DR - Females can get sertoli leydig cell tumors = high androgens +  
cinnapie  I just found a recent study on PubMed saying "Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen" +  
youssefa  Hahahahaha ya'll just bored +  
water  Bored? you wouldn't think so if you knew that females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +  
nbmehelp  I dont get it +  
redvelvet  how don't you get it that females can get Sertoli Leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen? +  


submitted by colonelred_(44),

He’s presenting with classic signs of vitamin B3 deficiency (niacin); niacin is required to form the cofactor NAD+ (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide).

bigjimbo  B3 Niacin deficiency = Pellegra = diarrhea, dermatitis, dementia death. = Niacin combines with adenine to become NAD+ https://www.aocd.org/page/Pellagra +1  


Why is it aphthous ulcers if there are no GI symptoms? Why can’t it be herpes zoster?

colonelred_  It’s just canker sores, they come and go. I think in herpes the gingivostomatitis really only happens when you first get infected. After that you just get recurrent cold sores. +1  
hyoid  Herpes zoster is not the same as herpes simplex virus. +4  
bigjimbo  you would see dermatome rash in zoster +1  
kateinwonderland  cf) Just in case someone wanted to know the causative organism of aphthous ulcers :The precise cause of canker sores remains unclear, though researchers suspect that a combination of factors contributes to outbreaks, even in the same person. Unlike cold sores, canker sores are not associated with herpes virus infections. +2  
charcot_bouchard  Herpes Zoster doesnt cause gingivostomatitis. Herpengina can cause vesicular lesion in mouth but happens to children in summer season by entero virus +  
drdeeznuts1  I'm wondering if this could be a mild case of Behcet syndrome without genital involvement +  
sherry  It sure can be Behcet or Pemphigus if the q provides us with more info. Canker sores just come and go for years with unclear mechanism. Also herpes zoster is shingles by VZV, not HSV1. +