to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
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I spent so long on this question and same... hahaha
Update on my prev comment : Yes this is psittacosis. not hypersensitivity pneumonitis. How do u know? Lymphocyte and Presence of Granuloma - response to intracellular chlamydia.
Now HS can also cause loose granuloma too and the clinical picture still more look like HS
You know what ......... fuck this ques
Here Pt. doesn't have fever!
Why is it regurg instead of stenosis?
Vague question requires a lot clinical reasoning.
mitral regurgitation: holosystolic murmur( this cv: midsystolic), enlarged LA, LV
Mitral stenosis: diastolic murmur, enlarged LA, normal LV.
only best explanation I can think of: early stage Mitral regur, that's why the murmur is not holosystolic but midsystolic and LV still adequately handle the situation
@hpsbwz it's regurgitation because the murmur is SYSTOLIC, when the mitral valve is not supposed to make any sound. mitral valve leaks in systole, which causes blood to back up, which causes the left atrium to work harder and eventually hypertrophy.
Mitral stenosis would be a DIASTOLIC sound, which is when the left atrium normally contracts.
How is this differentiated from Strep Virdans which is Optochin Resistant? Because Strep Pneumo would also be inhibited by optochin*
its strep viridans. Strep viridans has a "protected chin mask" and strep pneumo is "exposed" in the sketchy.
Yea i get that, but if the patients CD4 was ~35, how in the world did the CD4 count rise enough to stimulate B cell proliferation...? I don't get it
The only thing i can think of is that:
the cd4 count that is given was taken prior to having started the antiretroviral therapy.
Since the question asks about "improved function", maybe its referring to the therapy actually being effective and its managed to increase cd4 count and function so as to be able to contribute to lymph node enlargement due to myco. avium
I though it transfer to a lymphoma,OMG
This is great, thank you.
Pathoma ch. 3 pg 23 "Basic Principles"
Shoutout to Imam Satter! Without him this question wasnt possible for me to answer in 10 sec.
Its not in FA, Sketchy, or Pathoma, or U world.
I knew it wasnt cancer because its bilateral. And Diabetes made no sense to me. So I just threw down Drug effect and walked away.
The only possible explanation I think is that she was under a K sparing diuretic, such as spironolactone (which would lead to gynecomastia).
you had me at its not in sketchy ;)
Lipoprotein lipase: degradation of TGs circulating in chylomicrons and VLDLs.
FA 2019 pg 94
Why would B be incorrect? I realize Broca is "technically lower" but A seems too low to be causing weakness of the lower 2/3 of the face? Am I missing something?
@breis, per UW: "a/w r. hemiparesis (face & UE) bc close to primary motor cortex"
B is also close to frontal eye field; eyes look toward the lesion
FA pg. 499
Yep, seems that because the patient has prediabetes, he should avoid eating excessive starchy foods.
such a BS question IMO
such a BS question IMO
I put nuts thinking of "fats" and that with a bariatric surgery they may have problems with absorption..
This isn't right because the bariatric surgery will cure the prediabetes. It's dumping.
Why should he avoid eating excessive starchy foods? To avoid gaining weight? It doesn't matter what macronutrients he eats if they are calorie controlled.
Also corticalspinal tract symptoms are not seen, but dorsal column and spinocerebellar tracts are seen
In this case, patient's CF also predisposes fat-soluble vitamin deficiency.
FA pg 70
Correction: Read more on this
Vitamin-E deficiency can in fact cause anemia - hemolytic anemia.
This is b/c VitE work as an anti-oxidant; and therefore with reduced anti-oxidation RBCs are more prone to oxidative injuries.
I believe so, FA 2018 pg 299
It is dissection "extra lumen in the media of the proximal aorta" = "a longitudinal intimal (tunica intima) tear with dissection of blood through the media of the aortic wall" ... answer is still hypertension
FA 2019: 301
First Aid says that aortic dissection causes widening of the mediastinum and is due to an intimal tear, so I thought it wasn't an aortic dissection. Can anyone help me understand why First Aid was wrong in this case? Thanks!
I think it may actually be a keloid, not a hypertrophic scar, as it expands beyond the borders of the original incision.
I believe this is a keloid; a hypertrophic scar does not extend past the borders of it's original incision, while a keloid does. regardless, the answer to this question is the same :)
First AID pg 219
Scar formation: Hypertrophic vs. Keloid
They give granulation tissue is a option which is type 3 collagen. so if it was hypertrophic scar it would be ap problem since its only excessive growth of Type 3. while keloid is excessive growth of both 1 and 3