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Contributor score: 14
For some reason I don't trust you
^^^ haahahaha. Thankfully the patients aren't seeing these usernames
I guess he is asking about integrate,,,,, where his should be integrated into host dna to get replicated .. triple therapy includes. 2drugs NRTIs and other one is integrate
@ususmle NRTIs would still inhibit DNA synthesis since they mess with the reverse transcriptase which is needed to make viral DNA.
@ususmle HIV triple therapy is 2 NRTIs/NNRTIs + 1 protease inhibitor. Plus, if her CD4+ cunt is already 60/mm, that shit is well integrated in her CD4 cells already, right?
I was confused because isn't HIV an RNA virus?
@brotherimodu yes and therefore it uses a reverse transcriptase
This is amazing. thank you
This is amazing. thank you
Didn't finish reading this, but it looks awesome
Woah. Who knew the body was so complicated?
Dang, you actually learned something at your school? Lucky.
At our med school they teach us that Thiazide anti-HTN function is primarily from it's direct effects on vasculature rather than it's diuretic effects. Somehow directly affects the vasculature which is not well understood but this is linked to why Thiazides have greater efficacy in African American Populations. That's kinda why i figured it wouldn't be the best diuretic in this case.
@at0xibolic, I think you won this competition on finding better picture lol thanks
I think it's because Bethanechol acts on M3 receptors which can treat her urinary problems but it might exacerbate her asthma symptoms since there are M3 receptors on the lungs.
I definitely had to read this question multiple times to understand it.
I read it like 6 times and gave up
That describes Schwann cells' involvement with neuroregeneration, but I don't see how it answers the question "Which cell is blocking reinnervation"
thiazolidinediones (pioglitazone) increase insulin sensitivity (in muscles and liver) through activation of peroxisome proliferator-activated receptor-gamma (PPAR)
I think they are asking about primarily mechanism of action, that's why it is E
UW explanation regarding the genes upregulated
1. GLUT4: insulin responsive on adipocytes/skeletal
increases G uptake
2. adiponectin: cytokine
secreted by adipocytes
increases # of
adipocytes and stims
3. PPAR family also
plays significant role
in pathogenesis of
Also, I think the word uptake shouldn't be right when speaking about insulin, it does increase insulin sensitivity and therefore glucose uptake
@poisonivy That's why I didn't choose C and went with E since it was more specific
Brca: recombinant repair
P.40 FA2019 lists the different DNA repair mechanisms
In young men it could be chlamydia but the question stem makes no mention of sexual activity, so it is e. coli
First this guy isnt older! He may incite Daddy issue but not older. At this age people tend to be more monogamous so E Coli the more likely answer. But again cont NBME 20 trend this one was pretty vague too.
They classify at 35 year old (<35 = Chlamydia or Neisseria and > 35 = E.coli)
I put Pseudomonas, as that is a cause of prostatitis in older men, but it is less common than E. coli. Just keep that in mind, if E. coli wasn't an answer choice, the answer should have been Pseudomonas. If he was a younger male, then Chlamydia would have been acceptable.
@mbourne I think Pseudomonas is the more common etiology for acute prostatitis in the elderly (>65ish for exams), whereas E.Coli is the more common etiology in adults 35-64yo