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perhaps it's more to do with the fact that he can get erections when masturbating, outside of nocturnal erections which are not mediated by sexual desire. So his libido must be intact since he has sexual desire evident in being able to masturbate.
At least, that's the way I saw it.
"Testosterone concentration is within the reference range" and the fact that he has no difficulty masturbating = normal libido. Low testosterone would contribute to low libido And if he had low libido he would have difficulty masturbating
The way I made the decision about normal vs. decreased libido is also that he presented to his doctor due to difficulty maintaining an erection while trying to have sex - meaning he has the libido to try to have sex. Does that make sense?
It also says there are no signs of depression, which would cause the low libido after his wife died.
two years is a enough time to mourn...just saying
thisisfine, it makes absolute sense. That is the same way i saw it
He misses his wife man, isn't ready for other women. Psychogenic ED. physically hes fine (can crank his meat)
I know you're right. I was just so uncomfortable picking an answer with "inferior rectus" because damage to the inferior rectus does nothing to explain the clinical findings of impaired upward gaze. Unless the muscle is physically stuck and can't relax or something
Agreed. Why would a dysfunctional inferior rectus contribute to impaired upward gaze??? I eliminated that answer choice and got it wrong :(
in the last sentence it asks you to assume an "entrapment", so it is actually the inferior rectus which is the cause of the upward gaze palsy. The entrapped muscle is functionally trapped in it's shortened position, thereby not allowing the orbit to gaze upward.
Yeah the negative EtOH screen threw me off
Why cant it be early alzheimers and hippocampus? She could easily have been a former prominent physician and member of city council. Am i supposed to assume that simply because shes disheveled and poor hygeine that she must be an alcoholic homeless person? It also mentions no symptoms of nystagmus, ataxia, etc.
it said broad based gait and nystagmus
Also, the yeast form of Candida is gram (+)
I got thrown off by the part where they said "ovoid" and thought they were implying a cigar shape. I chose sporothrix for the morphology in spite of knowing that it clincally made no sense.
More like Zika Virus (Same a. aegypti vector) since it says she has rash associated to her bone and muscle pain. I had Zika one time (i live in Puerto Rico).
Remember also dengue and Zika are Flavivirus. Dengue can cause hemolysis (hemorrhagic), and Zika is associated with Guillen Barre and fetal abnormalities.
I'm shocked that I found a fellow puerto rican on this site! Good luck on your test!
dont be shocked! me too! exito!
I was thinking that its Murine typhus transmitted by fleas
Questions like this usually hinge on asking if you're going to follow the rules or not though, obviously the one asking her to lie and say she was her sister is wrong, but the correct answer is obviously breaking the hospice center's "policy" - presumably if the physician is sending her to hospice then they don't work there so why would the Dr. be able to just tell her its fine?
Yeah, I got this one wrong with the same logic as you, aesalmon.
I genuinely interpreted this question as though the two women were in a relationship because of the quotes "my close friend". I figured significant others would be allowed to visit simply. Ha seems like I'm the only one who read too far in between the lines!
@emmy2k21 I also thought the quotes implied a lesbian relationship and that the patient was afraid to share this (they grew up at a time when it was heavily stigmatized). So i was thinking, of course you and your "special friend" can stay together. I know this is not just a phase
Anything particularly wrong with A (Don't worry. I'll call you right away...")? It seemed like the most professional yet considerate answer choice.
Are we supposed to imply that they're partners based on those quotation marks around "close friend"? Because otherwise it seems like too casual and less professional than A, almost as if it's breaking policy.
rhinorrhea is specific to withdrawal from opioids (aka heroin). Look at page 554 in FA2018
what if the alcoholic just has a concurrent rhinovirus infection ;)
yea it was a dumbass question, whoever is writing these questions is undoubtedly a crazy genius but homeboy (or homegirl...homeperson?) needs a few grammar lessons.
I agree. We know that it is a teratogen, but how does that question directs you to think about teratogenic effects instead of something physiologic?
The questions in the NBMEs by default are reject questions. So highly selective to be awful questsions. I am recieving regular heads up that the stems on the real thing lately are like 10-12 lines long. So these questions are not anywhere near like the test. NBME has f'd us good for this particular round of practice forms.
Memory T cells live for six months or less in healthy humans (Westera et al., 2013), whereas naive T cells can live for up to nine years
so the bone marrow does not take the role of the thymus?
@sweetmed, does that mean that if someone loses their thymus, they would develop imunodeficiencies appx 9 years later as the naive T cells have died off?
@dr_jan_itor no, because once all of the thymocytes become T-lymphocytes, they are stored in lymphoid organs until they're needed. this is why removal of the thymus in MG does not cause any immune system deficiency.
Yep, seems that because the patient has prediabetes, he should avoid eating excessive starchy foods.
such a BS question IMO
such a BS question IMO
I put nuts thinking of "fats" and that with a bariatric surgery they may have problems with absorption..
This isn't right because the bariatric surgery will cure the prediabetes. It's dumping.
Why should he avoid eating excessive starchy foods? To avoid gaining weight? It doesn't matter what macronutrients he eats if they are calorie controlled.
^ Above is partially right:
Propranolol is non-selective Beta blocker:
Beta1 stimulation causes inc HR, therefore blocking it will dec HR and dec Cardiac output
Beta 2 stimulation causes vasodilation, therefore blocking it will CAUSE UNOPPOSED alpha1 activation --> therefore increasing total peripheral resistance.
so why tf do we give beta blockers for hypertension -.-
I would also add that the patient was previously on an a2 inhibitor (clonidine), which he ran out of. So he is rebounding on that with upregulated a1 receptor activity. Adding labetalol would cause a greater degree of unopposed alpha, increasing tpr