to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
Welcome to houseppary's page.
Contributor score: 2
H pylori is sometimes described as helical but more often as curved, but is (confusingly) not a spirochete. Spirochete refers to a particular family, Spirochaete, and are markedly corkscrew. The three important spirochete bugs for Step 1 are Leptospira, Borrelia spp., and Treponema pallidum; Brachyspira spp. get an honorable mention but idk they're high yield for Step 1. Anything other kind of bug is not going to be a spirochete. Additionally, H. pylori is not invasive, and instead resides on the surface of the gastric mucosa. The picture showed some bacteria inside the lumen of glands, not intracellulary.
*any other kind of bug gosh dang it, lol, definitely in dedicated rn
prefer “patients with hx of substance abuse” over more conveniently typed but less redemptive “drug addict”
I don't see why switching her to oral pain meds when she is ready would be incorrect. Clearly she is worried about being on the pain meds, I feel making a proclamation that she has a low risk of addiction would be profiling just because she doesn't have a history.
The opioid epidemic also affects people who didn't have a previous history of drug abuse. Just a thought, not trying to push any buttons. Maybe I am thinking to hard about this, but I don't see the clear A vs B line for this question.
@sugaplum I thought the exact same thing as you and chose the acetaminophen answer accordingly. I maintain that I am correct, my score be damned!
I had a similar question on UW and the explanation stated that the correct answer choice was the only one that addressed the patient's concern and answered her question. The rest were just alternative treatments, so they were incorrect.
But I too answered with oral pain meds.
couldn't agree more with you all. I chose acetaminophen because opioid abuse is NO joke. The crisis is still going strong because of answers like this...
I ruled out oral acetaminophen because they described in great detail the severity of her injuries, and indicated that she wasn't even fully conscious/aware when she asked this question about opioids. Rather than expose her to more pain, and possibly worsen her long-term pain prognosis, by switching to acetaminophen too early, in this case it makes sense to keep her comfortable because she's very seriously injured and not even fully lucid. It's kind to reassure her in this case.
I appreciate all of the passion for the opioid crisis, and the wording of the answer is definitely not ideal. However, PAIN is also very real, and there is no way acetaminophen alone would cut it in a case like this, not "as soon as she can take medications orally." Maybe I'm lucky to have 6 months in clinicals before STEP or had a mom who just went through urgent spine surgery for breast cancer mets, but there is a time and place for opioids and this is clearly one of them. Thank you for coming to my ted talk.
Any guesses as to why he might have CKD at 4 y.o.?
I agree except that on the imaging, if this was SMA, the artery would not be bright and filled with contrast because the problem states that these studies were taken with oral contrast. So that's not a feasible way to eliminate SMA as the correct answer. I to think the quality of the obstruction seen in the UGI series show an annular-looking obstruction rather than a focal compression as you'd see in SMA.
Then why the choice D, “Inability of leukocytes to ingest microorganisms“, is incorrect？Moreover, Staphylococcus aureus is not an intracellular microorganism. Thank you for your help!
Because in CGD, the macrophages are capable of taking in bacteria but aren't able to do the oxidative burst required to actually kill them. So the macrophages just house live bacteria which leads to granulomas full of walled-off but not dead bacteria. And S. aureus isn't intracellular as part of its normal life cycle, but being eaten by a macrophage isn't part of its normal life cycle. Whether an organism gets eaten by a macrophage isn't part of the consideration of whether it's intracellular.