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For some reason, I had two answers that I felt like both made absolute sense to me. As explained above, that totally came to my mind and I knew this was the case. When I thought about Metoprolol blocking B1 receptors in a patient with an ejection fraction of only 30%, I was thinking this could as well be a contraindication, not sure if it's an absolute one or relative. Now, am I right if I said that Beta-blockers are only contraindicated in acute decompensated HF? and can be used unless otherwise? Someone, please help me clarify this, so then this distinction can come clean in my thoughts. Thanks
I thought the same thing as you, I think we're just overthinking the most important thing - never give antihypertensive with Viagra lmfao. I totally thought too deep into it.
I agree, at the start, I got a bit confused because I felt like the question was probably less specific than it would have been, but NBME being NBME this is really expected. When you think about it more closely, once you consume the meal then ghrelin will peak and start dropping.
I agree, I had B at first but then thought too deep into it. I thought if she ATE a meal, she'd be full and low ghrelin. Annoying to get a question wrong on something so simple.
Also got this question wrong. A really bad explanation what they want from the curve...