NBME Answers : lolmedlol's page

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submitted by dragon3(4),

Can anyone explain why bacteria is neutrophils, viral/fungi are lymphocytes? I know this is a fundamental concept...

lolmedlol i think neutrophils (in addition to lacking granzymes and perforins which are used to kill viruses and fungi) dont recognize intracellular things; viral antigens needs to be processed and presented on an MHC for the lymphocytes to recognize +1

usmile1 also neutrophils are only seen in acute inflammation. This pt has longstanding inflammation which is associated with monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells. +

submitted by seagull(423),

What a terrible picture. They they covered up part of it with lines. WTF

sympathetikey Agreed. +

catch-22 Start at the pontomedullary junction and count from superior to inferiorly (or medially to laterally): VI, VII, VIII, IX. +

yotsubato I looked at the left side (cause the nerves arent frazzled up). Saw 7 and 8 come out together nicely. Then picked the right sided version of 8 +

lolmedlol why is it not H or I on the right side; the stem says he has hearing loss on the right side, so the lesion should be ipsilateral no? +1

catch-22 You're looking at the ventral aspect of the brainstem. +2

catch-22 ^Also, you know it's the ventral aspect because you can see the medullary pyramids. +

amarousis think of the belly of the pons as a pregnant lady. so you're looking at the front of her +1

hello which letter is CN IX in this diagram? +

submitted by bubbles(30),

Just as clarification, capillary hydrostatic pressure would decrease because of systemic vasoconstriction in response to aortic rupture/systemic hypotension?

lolmedlol i believe you get peripheral vasoconstriction and central vasodilation in the first stages of shock, which would cause stasis in the capillary beds, which would mean decreased capillary hydrostatic pressure, despite interstital hydrostatic pressure going down as well. https://www.sciencedirect.com/topics/medicine-and-dentistry/vasoconstriction and amboss shock description +

trichotillomaniac https://derangedphysiology.com/main/core-topics-intensive-care/manipulation-fluids-and-electrolytes/Chapter%201.1.8/response-haemorrhage-loss-1l-blood +

trichotillomaniac ^ this type of question is really hard for me to conceptualize. the link above walks you through it step by step with pictures. Theres not much of an explanation in FA. +

trichotillomaniac Overall is has to do with osmotic vs hydrostatic pressure. osmotic pressure stays the same and hydrostatic decreases. Hydrostatic pressure is the pressure pushing fluid out of the capillary and in the setting of blood loss this would decrease in efforts to keep as much fluid in the intravascular compartment as possible +