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Welcome to maria_danieli’s page.
Contributor score: 1


Comments ...

 +0  (nbme24#7)

So does someone know what is phase 0 for? It was an option... somathing like "let me see if i can study this thing?"

cheesetouch  via google - A Phase 0 study gives no data on safety or efficacy, being by definition a dose too low to cause any therapeutic effect. Drug development companies carry out Phase 0 studies to rank drug candidates in order to decide which has the best pharmacokinetic parameters in humans to take forward into further development. +
boostcap23  Phase 0 is an extremely small dose (1% of normal) given to easily rule out any harmful effects. Basically used as a quick way to eliminate further trails/research on drugs that don't work. +1




Subcomments ...

submitted by greentea733(12),

Why wouldn't the body down-regulate the conversion of FT4 into FT3? Is that conversion just constitutively activated? Since FT3 is more potent than T4, it would make sense for the body to turn that conversion down...that was my reasoning...obviously not correct, but idk why that wouldn't be the case. Anyone have insight?

maria_danieli  i thought the same... i remember that T3 conversion is somehow regulated but evidently not in this case +  
sars  Peripheral conversion of free T4 to T3 is done by 5-deiodinase. From what I know, only way to decrease this conversion is via b-blockers, glucocorticoids, propylthiouracil, and potassium iodide (lugols). I believe this was mentioned in the sketchy pharm vid as well. +1  
sars  Peripheral conversion of free T4 to T3 is done by 5-deiodinase. From what I know, only way to decrease this conversion is via b-blockers, glucocorticoids, propylthiouracil, and potassium iodide (lugols). I believe this was mentioned in the sketchy pharm vid as well. +  
sars  4th blocking agent isn't lugols, its iodinated radiocontrast dye! Sorry for that mistake. +  
cassdawg  "T3 is derived from peripheral conversion of T4... normal plasma T3 levels are obtained in athyreotic patients treated with sufficient T4 to achieve high-normal plasma (F)T4 levels. Administration of T4 to hypothyroid rats to achieve normal plasma T4 levels results in subnormal plasma T3 levels not only because of the lack of T3 secretion but also because of a decreased T3 production by D1 in peripheral tissues, since this enzyme is under positive control of T3 itself". (https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK285545/) i.e. because he is taking SUPRATHERAPEUTIC T4 his T3 is NORMAL. If he was taking NORMAL T4 then he would have DECREASED T3. Pretty sure the normal T4/decreased T3 thing is in another NBME test or UWorld somewhere. +  
cassdawg  ^Sorry to add, her is suprasupratherapeutic so his T3 is elevated. Essentially in a normal hypothyroid patient they are given supratherapeutic T4 to get normal T3 since T3 is the hormone with the action. Apologies if anything is confusing. +  


submitted by drpee(15),

According to FA 2019 pg. 495 contraction of lateral pterygoids help lower the jaw, making the answer to this question seem counter intuitive. (Wouldn't you need the jaw to be open to slide the mandible back into the TMJ?) Consider, however, that the lateral LPs also facilitate protrusion of the jaw. Thus, their relaxation would make it easier to reduce the joint.

I found this video helpful for getting a visual of the LPs.

maria_danieli  i thought that when a TMJ dislocation isn't reduced quickly your muscles kind of contract in that position.. since in ATM dislocation your mouth is open you have a contracture of lateral pretygoids that prevents mouth's closure TMJ. to slide the mandible back you need to relax them otherwise the mouth won't close! Same as shoulder dislocation, you must act tempestively otherwise you'll need BZD to relax muscles could this be an explanation? +1