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Comments ...

 +2  (nbme24#8)

The way I thought about it was a little more simplistic. We use non selective beta blockers (e.g. Propranolol) for the treatment of essential tremor. Therefore a beta agonist would have the opposite effect, aka cause or enhance tremor.

 +3  (nbme21#6)

This patient definitely has Sarcoidosis. Clues in question stem: -African American Female -Erythema Nodosum -Bilateral Hilar Adenopathy -Hypercalcemia (due to 1α-hydroxylase–mediated vitamin D activation in macrophages).

FA 2018 (P. 658)

Subcomments ...

submitted by m-ice(116),

The patient needs medical attention immediately, which eliminates obtaining a court order, or transferring her. A nurse does not have the same training and qualifications as a physician, so it would be inappropriate to ask them to examine the patient. Asking the hospital chaplain again could be inappropriate, and would take more time. Therefore, the best option among those given is to ask the patient if she will allow with her husband present.

sympathetikey  Garbage question. +13  
masonkingcobra  So two men is better than one apparently +4  
zoggybiscuits  GarBAGE! ? +  
bigjimbo  gárbágé +  
fulminant_life  this question is garbage. She doesnt want to be examined by a male how would the presence of her husband make any difference in that respect? +1  
dr.xx  I guess this is a garbage question because what hospital, even small and rural, does not have a female physician on staff. NBME take notice -- this is the 2010s not 1970s. +  
medpsychosis  The question here focuses on a specific issue which is the patient's religious conservative beliefs vs. urgency of the situation. A physician is required to respect the patient's autonomy while also balancing between beneficence and non-maleficence. The answer choice where the physician asks the patient if it would be ok to perform the exam with the husband present is an attempt to respect the conservative religious belief of the patient (not being exposed or alone with another man in the absence of her husband) while also allowing the physician to provide necessary medical treatment that could be life saving for her and or the child. Again, this allows for the patient to practice autonomy as she has the right to say no. +4  
sahusema  I showed this question to my parents and they said "this is the kind of stuff you study all day?" smh +2  
sherry  I totally agree this is a garbage question. I personally think there is more garbage question on new NBME forms than the previous ones...they can argue in any way. I feel like they were just trying to make people struggle on bad options when everybody knows what they were trying to ask. +  

can someone explain why this is not transduction? Last nbme I said conjugation and got it wrong for transduction.. this one I say transduction and its conjugation.

pseudorosette  I would say because this happened between two bacteria, but in transduction what causes the acquisition of bacterial resistance is coming from a bacteriophage, which is a virus that infects bacteria, but that is never hinted at the question! +  
medpsychosis  Quick Overview of the involved topics and answer choices that are relevant in this question: Transduction: Involves phage, cleaves DNA and takes a part with it as it is packaged. Generalized is when is happens by accident. Specialized is an excision event. Transformation: bacteria takes up naked DNA around it and incorporates it therefore becoming "transformed" e.g. (SHiN) S. Pneuma, H. Influenza type B, and Neisseria. Transposition: Jumping from one location to another within same bacterial organism (e.g. from chromosome to plasmid) Conjugation: Above mentioned plasmid gets transferred from conjugal bridge from one bacteria to another. +3  
wowo  FA2019 p130 +  
zbird  Easy here...first both are G-ves which likely have a sex pilus and if cultured together as in this case transfer their plasmid. Transduction need phage. Transposition is exchange of genetic material inside the bacteria b/n the dna and the plasmid or vv (FA2019) +  

submitted by neonem(230),

This is acute hemolytic transfusion reaction, a type II hypersensitivity where pre-formed IgM antibodies bind to incompatible ABO antigens on donor RBCs, which causes intravascular hemolysis. Rh incompatibility, like colonelred_ said, comes more into play with Rh-compatibility of pregnancy and it is due to IgG antibodies, which more often cause extravascular hemolysis since splenic macrophages have those Fc-gamma-R receptors to bind whatever IgG has caught. Extravascular doesn't cause that hypotension, fever, flank pain associated with hemoglobinuria since the macrophages hold on to the degraded RBCs and convert it to biliverdin, which can safely be excreted by the liver.

mousie  Could you help me with understanding why this isn't a Type I HSR? I understand that ABO incompatibility is Type II HSR but I don't know how to tell the difference between a patient who is IgA deficient and having a Type I Reaction to an infusion vs ABO incompatibility .... +1  
sympathetikey  @mousie - Basically, think of Type 1 HS like a normal allergic reaction (itchy, wheezing, etc.). Whereas, with ABO incompatibility you get the question's presentation. +2  
medpsychosis  When it comes to Acute hemolytic transfusion reactions, they are Type II hypersensitivity and divided into Intravascular (ABO) and Extravascular (host Ab against foreign antigen on donor RBC). The differentiating factor between them is simple. Intravascular (ABO) will present with hemoglobinuria alongside all the other common symptoms (fever,hypotension, tachypnea etc.) Extravascular hemolysis will stand out with Jaundice as one of the presenting symptoms. Hope this helps! +2  

submitted by neonem(230),

This patient case sounds like he has iron deficiency anemia (anemia, low hematocrit, microcytic) from a GI bleed. To get this question right, you had to remember that the two major inherited GI cancer syndromes are FAP (due to mutation in APC gene, which is a tumor suppressor gene) and Lynch syndrome AKA hereditary non-polyposis colorectal carcinoma (HNPCC), caused by a mutation in a number DNA mismatch repair genes, of with MHS2 is a more common one.

The mechanisms of their carcinoma development are different; in FAP, tumors arise from a normal --> adenoma --> carcinoma sequence while in HNPCC, tumors arise from what's known as a microsatellite instability pathway, leading to spontaneous formation of a carcinoma (not preceded by a benign lesion like an adenoma)... You didn't need to know this to get this question right, but definitely good to know.

medpsychosis  To make it even simpler, if you narrowed it down to FAP vs HNPCC and looked at the image provided in the question, you'd see it's less likely to be FAP due to absence of numerous polyps which would be expected. So HNPCC would be your best choice! +  
yb_26  I always get Li-Fraumeni and Lynch syndromes confused :/ +  

Why is it not ovarian follicle cells? I thought the female analog of Sertoli and Leydig is theca/granulosa cells.

colonelred_  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
brethren_md  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
sympathetikey  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
s1q3t3  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
masonkingcobra  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +  
mcl  Wait, but did anyone mention that females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen??? +8  
mcl  But seriously though, pathology outlines says sertoli-leydig tumor "may be suspected clinically in a young patient presenting with a combination of virilization, elevated testosterone levels and ovarian / pelvic mass on imaging studies." As for follicle cell tumors, granulosa cell tumors usually occur in adults and would cause elevated levels of estrogens. Theca cell tumor would also primarily produce estrogens. Putting the links at the end since idk if they're gonna turn out right lol Link pathology outlines for sertoli leydig granulosa cell tumor theca cell tumor +5  
bigjimbo  LOL +  
fallenistand  Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
medpsychosis  So after doing some intense research, UPtoDate, PubMed, an intense literature review on the topic I have come to the final conclusion that...... ...... ...... ...... Wait for it.... ..... ..... Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen. +2  
charcot_bouchard  Hello, i just want to add that Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +1  
giggidy  Hold up, so I'm confused - I read all the posts above but I still am unsure - are sertoli-leydig cells notorious for producing androgen? +  
subclaviansteele  Hold the phone.....Females can get sertoli leydig cell tumors which are notorious for producing androgen? TIL TL;DR - Females can get sertoli leydig cell tumors = high androgens +  
cinnapie  I just found a recent study on PubMed saying "Females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen" +  
youssefa  Hahahahaha ya'll just bored +  
water  Bored? you wouldn't think so if you knew that females can get sertoli-leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen +  
nbmehelp  I dont get it +  
redvelvet  how don't you get it that females can get Sertoli Leydig cell tumors, which are notorious for producing lots of androgen? +  

How do you distinguish this from testicular torsion? Is it just because it started in the left flank?

neels11  and there's no mass in the scrotum, whereas testicular torsion will have that "bag of worms" feel (along with a lack of cremaster reflex) testicular torsion usually happens in a younger age group +1  
medpsychosis  @neels11 I would like to clarify a piece of information. I believe you are confusing Varicocele with Testicular Torsion. Varicocele will present with "bag of worms" feeling. While the absence of cremasteric reflex is a sign of testicular torsion. +  
johnson  This is the classic "loin to groin pain" of nephrolithiasis. +  

PTH is increased because serum calcium is low. Because PTH is increased, phosphorous is decreased. The woman in unable to absorb vitamin D (a fat soluble vitamin), so calcitriol is decreased (no vitamin D for the kidney to activate into calcitriol).

gabeb71  What does this have to do with the Celiac Sprue? +1  
medpsychosis  I believe they were explaining the reason for the mentioned "mild osteopenia" in the pt presentation. +  
meningitis  No, I think this person got confused with another question about celiac sprue, PTH, Calcitriol, and Vit D (it was an arrow type question). +  

submitted by mcl(172),

According to this paper, insulin inhibits alpha cells from releasing glucagon. This is the relevant figure from the paper.

medpsychosis  There are three ways that Glucagon secretion is stimulated: +(1) a stimulatory effect of low glucose directly on the alpha cell, +(2) withdrawal of an inhibitory effect of adjacent beta cells, and +(3) a stimulatory effect of autonomic activation. The response of Glucagon to hypoglycemia is diminished in T1Diabetes. Hence in this pt, the impaired release of Glucagon allows for prolonged Hypoglycemia. Reference: +3