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Welcome to misrao’s page.
Contributor score: 1


Comments ...

 +0  (nbme21#25)

Can someone explain the correlation between 450 mOsmol/day and needing to excrete 1 L of water? Thanks


 +1  (nbme21#30)

Axillary = ABCD + A = Axillary nerve + B = aBduction loss + C = C5-6 + D = Deltoid

misrao  sorry about formatting, couldn't get it right +




Subcomments ...

submitted by pg32(141),

NBME/Uworld love to test renal artery stenosis in the setting of hypertensive urgency/emergency. Just because this has been done so many times, you can basically get the right answer from the first half of the question. Pt with end organ issues (headache, confusion) and really high BP (I know it isn't 180/120, but it is really high). So this guy basically has hypertensive emergency. I'm already thinking it's renal artery stenosis. Next sentence? A bruit over the left abdomen. Bingo. Renal artery stenosis, most often caused by atherosclerosis in older men (as compared to fibromuscular dysplasia in younger women).

lovebug  He is heavy smoker but, No weight loss, No cachexia -> so can be R/O Left renal cell carcinoma. is it right? +  
lovebug  Renovascular ds. FA2019, pg 592. +  
misrao  and no hematuria so r/o RCC +  


submitted by misrao(1),

Axillary = ABCD + A = Axillary nerve + B = aBduction loss + C = C5-6 + D = Deltoid

misrao  sorry about formatting, couldn't get it right +  


submitted by hyoscyamine(55),
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FA 2.37gp. Suusoqam lelc cminoacra srucco in eth puerp 2/3 of eahsouspg wsheear dnacneraicomoa crcsou ni eth salidt .3/1 cnSie ihst swa in eht dim s,osupghea tsi uasusmqo llec ncoramaci. yKe efterua fo masuquos lcel cinmaacor is tkinear esa.rpl

turtlepenlight  can remember it as wearing a pearl necklace (upper 2/3 of throat-ish) +4  
baja_blast  Patient is also a heavy smoker and drinker. In the absence of GERD this should raise suspicion for SCC of esophagus over Adenocarcinoma. +1  
lovebug  Is there anyone who can explain about C)Intra-cytoplasmic pigment? what is this?;; +  
misrao  @lovebug I'm thinking Negri bodies in rabies +  


submitted by nosancuck(85),
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oY ids B ogt ON ERNLATNI FEAEML ANGORS

yhW ad?t!??

eW eb oonlki at eeonsmo thwi an YSR from reed Y rch ymoeiD!e eb a Y irhoemc mieoH os tyhe be akinm oesm tessiT neritnDeim rotFca iwhhc I be seru mkesa omse enci ill IATN ULENAMRIL OFRTAC so dye ntai gto ahtt aelemF nnIleatr tcTra u wnko awht i eb sanyi

nAd necsi izwmmni si da TFEALDU eyht lsit be ittnge sode spuys ipsl nad bersaets

meningitis  The above explanation is correct (disregarding the hard to read and unprofessional dialect) but just in case anyone was wondering: chromatin-negative= Just a quick way of knowing it was a boy. The term applies to the nuclei of cells in normal males as well as those in individuals with certain chromosomal abnormalities +16  
yotsubato  Turner syndrome patients are also chromatin negative as well though.... +5  
sympathetikey  I didn't know a complication post-meningitis was lack of humor. +5  
sympathetikey  Ah, didn't read the last line. Yeah, that is taking it a bit far +20  
niboonsh  yall are haters. this is the first explanation that has ever made sense to me +5  
arkmoses  https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yuXL-3eoB-o&t=77s Interesting syndrome watching this helped me to put it into real life perspective, interesting points they have no pubic hair/body hair, they apparently also dont smell, and breast size is usually increased... +1  
whoissaad  How does chormatin-negative indicate a normal cell? Isn't chormatin just condensed DNA? +1  
cienfuegos  According to this paper most individuals with Turner Syndrome are chromatin negative: "One of the initial laboratory procedures used to confirm or rule out this diagnosis involves a sex chromatin determination from a buccal smear. Cells from the lining of the mouth are stained for the presence or absence of X-chromatin or Barr bodies, which represent a portion of an inactivated X chromosome. The typical Turner’s syndrome patient, who has 45 chromosomes and only one sex chromosome (an X), has no Barr bodies and is, therefore, X-chromatin negative. This abnormal X-chromatin negative finding in the majority of Turner’s syndrome females is similar to the result found in a normal male, who also has only one X chromosome, and differs from the X-chromatin positive condition observed in the normal female, who has two X chromosomes. Occasionally, the patient with features of Turner’s syndrome is found to be X-chromatin positive." https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC6233891/ +1  
hyperfukus  i really hate haters this is awesome! +1  
selectuw  to add to the above, free testosterone is aromatized to estrogen leading to breast development +  
misrao  Is the free testosterone not creating male internal or external gentalia because of the defect in androgen receptors? +