Welcome to mrglass’s page.
Contributor score: 34
I meant to say Cysteine and Methionine*
I selected the same. I think part of the question wanted us to recognize that the pt was not receiving CMV prophylaxis (hinted that they are getting TMP-SMX but no Gancyclovir) so they're at really high risk for CMV specifically. UpToDate:
•Universal prophylaxis with valganciclovir or ganciclovir is typically given to patients at risk for cytomegalovirus (CMV) reactivation (eg, seropositive recipients and those with seropositive donors). The duration of therapy often depends on the type of organ transplanted, the risk status of the patient, and individual institutional practice. Some transplant centers prefer to use a pre-emptive approach (eg, routine CMV viral load monitoring within initiation of treatment when reactivation becomes evident) for specific patient populations. (See 'Cytomegalovirus' above.)
This was awesome! Made so much sense and hopefully I will be able to think that critically about questions in the future (because I NEVER would have come up with this on my own, hah).
OMG! THANK YOU. I DIDNT KNOW ANYTHING about this!! Hope this is not testesd on real examen :p
wow! this explanation was awesome! thanks!
Also the T-cell V-D-J segments are not the same as the B-cell V-D-J segments. Therefore a B-cell J segment southern blot would look for whether the B-cell site VDJ segment in a T-cell, which would always non-rearranged.
So is this because multiple myeloma produces excessive monoclonal light chain Ig? Is this the 1.5 kb gene? Whereas, T-cells that have not gone through differentiation yet and their J region includes everything (VDJ) vs. just VJ in the light chain? (FA 2020 pg 104)
This explanation is amazing! However, to fully understand another step of what the question is getting at, please take a look at @highyieldboardswards's and/or @mrglass' explanation as well - a very important addition!!
you're definitely not alone lol
And its not in FA, so fuck it IMO
I guessed it because the names sounded similar :D
I also guessed because both words start with "glu")))
same as person above me. also bc arginine carbamoyl phosphate and nag are all related through urea cycle.
Not a clue. This was so random.
this made me feel a lot better.
also, no fucking clue
My immediate thought after reading this was "why would i know this and how does this make me a better doctor?"
Generally speaking Glutamine is often used to aminate things. Think brain nitrogen metabolism. You know that F-6-P isn't an amine, and that Glucosamine is, so Glutamine isn't an unrealistic guess.
yea, I mature 30k anki cards to see this bs
I literally shouted wtf in quiet library at this question.
Lol def didn't know it. Looks like I'm not going to be a competent doctor because I don't know the hexosamine pathway lol
Is it biochemistry? Then I do not know it.
I Ctrl+F'd glucosamine in FA and it's not even there lol
i definitely guessed, for some reason got it down to arginine and glutamine
I did not
Narrowed it down to Arginine and Glutamine figuring the Nitrogen would have to come from one of these two but of course I picked the wrong one. Classic.
+1 no idea!
Ahhh yes the classic Glucosamine from fructose 6-phosphate question....Missed this question harder than the Misoprostol missed swing
no idea. i could only safely eliminate carbamoyl phosphate because that's urea cycle
just adding in to say, nope.
Lol I didn't either. I think this is just critical thinking though. The amine has to come from somewhere. Glutamine/glutamate is known to transfer amines at the least
I meant to say Cysteine and Methionine*
crackles are heard bilaterally so there is pulm patho which leads to increased pulm vascular resistance, since systemic blood flows into the lungs.
any block in the flow ahead (lungs) will increase resistance in flow behind ( systemic )
This patient is hypoxic increased diffusion distance. This causes pulmonary vasoconstriction. Ordinarily this response is designed to shunt blood to parts of the lungs that are well ventilated, but the response is maladaptive in global hypoxia
I dont believe decreased venous oxygen tension would lead to pulmonary vasoconstriction (this is typically in the setting of low PAO2 you see this; shunting blood away from poorly oxygenated alveoli). You can get to increased pulmonary vascular resistance due to pulm edema from Left heart failing leading to fluid overload in pulm vasculature).
She's not taking TMP/SMX though.
I would pick lymphoma over abscess mainly because .5cm growth in 2 weeks is incredibly rapid, which is classic for diffuse B-cell lymphoma, which is what tends to be in the CNS. Also there was no evidence of a classic source of brain abscess like mastoiditis.