Can someone explain the difference between C. (release of stored thyroid hormone from a thyroid gland infiltrated by lymphocytes) and D. (Release of thyroid hormone from a lymphomatous thyroid gland.
My guess is that they are referring to Retrovirus (HIV/HTLV)- a single stranded positive sense linear RNA. Retroviruses are known to carry reverse transcriptase (RNA-dependent DNA-polymerase). The encephalitis is what threw me off cuz I automatically thought of the many negative sense RNA viruses that cause encephalitis (like arenavirus or bunyavirus). Apparently there have been a few causes of HTLV causing encephalitis... maybe this is what they were trying to get at? Idk but i just spent way too much time on this damn question https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC5878187/
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/15599631 The horseshoe kidney was detected before surgery in 12 patients (80%) by ultrasonography, angiography, computed tomography (CT) or excretory urography. Angiography revealed multiple or anomalous renal arteries in 8 of 12 patients studied preoperatively
This link has good pictures as reference https://www.nielasher.com/blogs/video-blog/trigger-point-therapy-fibularis-peroneus-longus-brevis-tertius
This is a case of acute transplant rejection. weeks to months after the transplant, recipient cd8 and/or cd4 t cells are activated against the donor (a type 4 HSR) and the donor starts making antibodies against the transplant. This presents as a vasculitis with dense interstitial lymphocytic infiltrates. (FA2018 pg 119)
The obliques do the opposite action of their name. Inferior oblique moves the eye UP and OUT (extortion, elevation, ABduction). Since the question says that there is a fracture involving the orbital floor, that automatically rules out D (medial rectus and inferior oblique), leaving the only logical answer to be the inferior rectus and inferior oblique. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=lWKkHWWDIEI
i think of this as ole farmer joe on his actinic farm picking karats (carrots) (actinic keratosis)
my understanding of this is from pathoma - Interstitial (atypical) pneumonia - caused by diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Can be caused by Mycoplasma pneumo, RSV, chlamydia pneumo, influenza, coxiella burentii
SWIM
phase one - is it Safe?
phase 2 - does it Work?
phase 3 - any Improvements?
phase 4 - stay on the Market?
this was a dumb question. the mneumonic "DIDanosine causes pancreaDIDis" is useful here
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4-DuvwoH2zQ if ur lazy like me, this is a good refresher video
" Other classes of medications that cause hyperprolactinemia include antidepressants, antihypertensive agents, and drugs that increase bowel motility. Hyperprolactinemia caused by medications is commonly symptomatic, causing galactorrhea, menstrual disturbance, and impotence. It is Important to ensure that hyperprolactinemia in an Individual patient is due to medication and not to a structural lesion in the hypothalamic/pituitary area; this can be accomplished by (1) stopping the medication temporarily to determine whether prolactin levels return to normal, (2) switching to a medication that does not cause hyperprolactinemia "
https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pubmed/16092584
"Non-dose-dependent side effects — Although low-dose therapy seems to minimize the metabolic complications induced by a thiazide or thiazide-like diuretic, it may not necessarily eliminate other side effects. As an example, as many as 25 percent of men treated with 25 mg/day of chlorthalidone develop a decline in sexual function [34]. Sleep disturbances can also occur, particularly if the patient is on a low-sodium diet [34]. How these problems occur is not known."
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=WGWFFN01qkA succinylcholine usually has v fast duration of action bcuz metabolized by plasma pseudocholinesterase. With atypical pseudocholinesterase, decreased metabolism of succinylcholine and thus causes a prolonged duration of action of succinylcholine ----> APNEA
It said it was fatal to males in utero, and the question asked about live born offspring. Since the males aren’t being born in the first place, I said 50% females and 0% males.
Calculations for dad. The probability of the father being a carrier is 2/3 since it is known that he doesn’t have the disease. Then the probability of him passing it on to his kid is 1/2, thus:
Calculations for mom. With the Hardy-Weinberg Principle, you can figure out the probability of the mother being a carrier:
q = sqrt(1/40,000) = 1/200
So, 2pq = 2 * 1/200 * 199/200, which is approx 1/100.
For the child to get the allele from mom, two things need to happen: (1) mom must be a carrier [“heterozygote”] and (2) mom must pass the allele to child:
Puting it all together. Now, combine all together:
= (probability of dad being carrier) * (probability of dad passing on disease allele) * (probability of mom being carrier) * (probability of mom passing on disease allele)
= 2/3 * 1/2 * 1/100 * 1/2
= 1 in 600
I feel dumb for asking but can someone explain this? If his parents are of close to normal BMI and are concerned about his weight why would they be allowing his calorie consumption to exceed his energy expenditure? ( AKA letting the kid eat too much and not exercise enough)
meningiomas count as enhancing lesions? (this comment needs to be more than 50 characters apparently.)
out of curiosity, how may people knew this? (dont be shy to say you did or didnt?)
My poverty education didn't ingrain this in me.
Has anybody found a good explanation for this histology? I genuinely have no idea what I'm looking at.
Sorry if I'm being dense...why does this woman have diarrhea due to statins, diet, and exercise? I didn't really understand what they were asking for here to be honest.
Can someone explain properly how we know that this trait follows Mendelian genetics and is autosomal recessive and furthermore how the parents were heterozygous?
I guessed a lot on this question and got lucky :(
I'm sorry but what am I missing here... I thought the whole point of diuretics is to correct volume overload by diuresis? How would total volume be increased??
The description of bilateral lower limb loss of vibration implies DCML damage, and the absent DTRs + Romberg seem to me to be implying that he possibly has tabes dorsalis from syphilis (or something very similar in presentation).
As for the other answers, A is wrong because his motor function is intact, B is wrong because pain and temperature deficits are not mentioned, C is wrong because it implies a specific nerve is entrapped, but he has lost bilateral sensation in his entire lower extremities
D is the trickiest, and I’m not 100% sure, but I would think radiculopathy of the anterior (ventral) roots would cause motor deficits since they carry motor efferents. You might also expect that motor dysfunction to be unilateral, since it would be unlikely to have a problem with the nerve roots on both sides. also the DCML is not located near the anterior roots of the spinal cord, so if the anterior roots were affected you really wouldn’t expect to see vibratory loss.
So basically process of elimination, I do feel like sensory neuropathy is an extremely vague answer though and I wasn’t a fan of the question.
[special]
the question was very poorly worded in my opinion, anybody else agree?
Arthropod for sure, but for the record I'm pretty sure this was Chikungunya Virus. Only got this from a UWorld question as I hadn't seen it until then, but apparently the arthralgia is really bad, which is what drew me to the answer.
2,500 students ... but you find out during your initial screen that 500 already have the disease. So, strikeout those people. That leaves 2,000 students who don’t have the disease.
Over the course of 1 year, you discover 200 students developed the infection. Thus:
200 new cases / 2,000 people who didn’t have the disease when you started your study = 10 percent
Tricky, tricky NBME ...
Yo dis B got NO INTERNAL FEMALE ORGANS
Why dat!???
We be lookin at someone with an SRY from dere Y chromie! Dey be a Y chromie Homie so they be makin some Testis Determinin Factor which I be sure makes some nice lil ANTI MULLERIAN FACTOR so dey aint got that Female Internal Tract u know what i be sayin
And since wimminz is da DEFAULT they stil be gettin dose pussy lips and breastes
Per p608 in FA 2019, SRY on Y chromosome results in development of testes. DHT results in development of male external genitalia (and the prostate).
very stupid question. The virus was inhaled -- bats hang upside when they sleep and drool. So it spreads to the brain directly from the olfactory system via retrograde transport through nerves.
Methionine is an essential amino acid. All others listed are not.
Ubiquitin-mediated proteolysis is not reversibly affected by insulin. The question asks for reversible ways that insulin affects it, and ubiquitination would lead to degradation via proteases, which is not reversible. Nuclear/cytoplasmic shunting makes sense because FOXO is a transcription factor, so it can’t do its job if it is in the cytoplasm!
Can someone please explain why can't alcohol be correct in this setting?
tinidazole preferred due to single dose
euthyroid sick syndrome is sometimes called "low T3 syndrome." Also you know that the patient is euthyroid because her T4 and TSH are within the reference range. She is sick.
Just as a note for anybody else who was WTF at how 2(29/30)(30/30) = 1/15...a lot of question banks round 29/30 (or any similarly large fraction) out to 1
In psychogenic polydipsia, serum sodium is low, and after water deprivation test, urine osmolality is increased. Urine osmolality does not increase with vasopressin injection
In nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, serum sodium is high and there is no change/mild increase in urine osmolality after water deprivation
tri-CyCliC antidepressent - anti C holinergic, C ant stand up (a1 block), C ardiotoxic (prolong qt by messing w na channels)