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I'm not completely sure...but I think its because its aspirin, and aspirin doesn't work on IIb/IIIa receptors. That's why i picked decreased adherence of platelets, figured that was the closest thing to decreased aggregation that still made sense with aspirin's mechanism of action. Hope that helps!
Aspirin irreversibly inhibits COX which leads to decreased TXA2. TXA2 normally is a vasoconstrictor and induces platelet aggregation, so aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation by downplaying TXA2 not by interacting with IIb/IIIa receptor. (Source FA and UWorld)
be kind to yourself, doc! (it's a long road we're on!)
Hi, can someone explain the blood smear? isn't it supposed to show hypersegmented neutrophils if it was B12 deficiency?
I think the blood smear is showing a lone lymphocyte, which should be the same size as a normal RBC. You can see the RBCs in this smear are bigger than that ->macrocytic ->B12 deficiency
maybe i'm new to the game. but isn't the answer folate deficiency and not B12? Also, i though it was anemia of chronic disease as well.
Lispectedwumbologist, please explain your mistake? Lol because that seems like a respectible answer to me...
It's a B12 deficiency
Ileum is where B12 is reabsorbed, folate is jejunum
The blood smear is showing enlarged RBCs
Methionine synthase does this conversion, using cofactor B12
Anemia of chronic disease is a microcytic anemia -- I believe this is why they put a lymphocyte on the side -- so we could see that it was a macrocytic anemia.
Thanks NBME, that really helped me....
the question was relatively easy, but the picture was so misguiding i felt! i thought it looked like microcytic RBCs. I guess the key is, that they clearly mentioned distal ileum. and that is THE site for B12 absorption.
I didn't even register that was a lymphocyte. I thought I was seeing target cells so I was confused AF