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Why does she still have hydronephrosis bilaterally? Why doesn't the drain collect more urine if it's ligation (draining urine into the peritoneum)? Why would both be injured - WTF is this blind surgeon doing?
I like this ddx explanation. well done
When I hear ulcer on the cervix while pregnant. I dont go jumping and claiming cancer. I think more was needed to clarify this question (as I say about all questions I miss - fml). Maybe a hx of abnormal pap smear or non hpv vaccine hx, something else.
This patient is currently asymptomatic, which is why treatment for her should be IFN-β (or glatiramer or natalizumab).
If she still had symptoms of an acute MS exacerbation, treatment would consist of corticosteroids (i.e., dexamethasone/methylprednisolone). If symptoms persist in spite of steroids, she should undergo plasmapheresis.
But why is the answer not MS? Is it just because the way the question was worded asked what is the cause of the patients symptoms as opposed to what is the underlying cause?
initially treated with ...... and/or surgery .... surgical resection is NOT used. Very contradicting
aye OME and UW say that type 2 AV block have normal PR interval but the QRS drops randomly
Mobitz Type I
- due to delay or break of cardiac electrical signal pathway from atria to ventricles
- epidemiology: associated with drugs that block the AV nodes (digioxin, CCB, BB)
Benign rhythm -> low risk for complete heart block thus treatment is observation in an asymptomatic pt and attempt to correct reversible causes (holding meds that would impact the AV node)
Mobitz type II due to his-purkinje system below AV node
- can progress to third degree AV block which requires a pacemaker
- QRS in type II can be wider than Mobitz Type I
- Capgras syndrome: someone close to them or a loved one has been replaced by an imposter. Not what's going on here
- Dimentia with Lewy Bodys -> would have hallucinations and features of parkinsonism also not seen here (mneumonic: ha-lewy-cinations)
- Dimentia, Alzheimers type -> question stem would almost always mention something about the person getting lost in neighborhoods or unable to find their way as part of the pathology
- MDD: doesn't meet the criteria of SIGECAPS
- Metastatic prostate cancer -> typically presents with back pain which is not seen here
Multi infart vascular dimentia -> often a stepwise decline (at 6 months x happened, then at 4 months y happened, and at 2 months z started happening)
I choose sterilization because C-diff is essentially an imbalance of colonic flora due to antibiotic "sterilization" leading to expansion of C. Diff. However, I ca see how toxin- mediated is the true mechanism but the question seems dirty to me.
I think also technically sterilization refers to inactivating spores (as opposed to disinfection which would not), so would imply Cdiff would be killed off too