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This patient has hepatitis (elevated liver enzymes) due to active Hepatitis C infection. Hep C and HIV infection are both associated with intravenous drug use. While most patients with Hep A will clear the virus after their acute illness, Hep C causes chronic infection in 80% of patients, which may lead to cirrhosis over time (~20 years).

tallerthanmymom  Wait... I swear we could treat hep C with Sofosbuvir and Ribavirin and that it is curable these days? +  


An odds ratio greater than 1 signifies increases odds, risk, likelihood -- whichever you prefer to call it. If the 95% confidence interval range does not include 1, then the difference is statistically significant (though not necessarily clinically meaningful).

tallerthanmymom  Can someone explain why it is an increase in risk rather than a decrease? Also, relative to what? Do we just assume it is relative to people who do not exercise regularly? +  
banana  Uncertain about this, but I think from my memory of the question that the above explanation should say "relative risk" and not odds ratio. The relative risk is the (number women fractured/total exposed)/(number women fractured/total unexposed):: therefore, >1 means that more women got fractured when they exercised. (FA 2020, 258) +  


While E coli is normal gut flora, your body would prefer it stay intraluminal.

tallerthanmymom  Just remember that E.Coli and Bacteriodes Fragilis (sp?) are the 2 main gutys that cause intraperitoneal infections from the gut. +2  
bharatpillai  Why not citrobacter though? +  


The baroreceptors are stretch receptors (the more fluid in the vessel, the more they fire). So a patient with hemorrhagic shock will see a decrease in the baroreceptor firing rate. Activation of RAAS will result in increased vascular resistance (vasoconstriction) in order to maintain blood pressure. And capillaries, such as those in the kidney, will be primed for resorption and not filtration (no one wants to pee out good dilute urine when they’re dehydrated). Likewise, systemic capillaries will prefer to hold onto plasma and not let it leak into the interstitium (third-spacing).

tallerthanmymom  Another thing contributing to the increased SVR is increased SNS tone and decreased PNS tone. When BP is low --> Afferent BR firing decreased ---> Efferent SNS firing increases, and PNS decreases --> the inc in SNS tone stimulates a1 receptors ---> Inc SVR BUT, I don't understand what is causing the increase in the PVR because I always thought that inc SNS tone should be causing vasodilation in the lungs and that is why PCWP is decreased. +  


Filgrastim is a granulocyte colony stimulating factor (GCSF), which are drugs used to increase white blood cell count in patients with leukopenia. Leucovorin (folinic acid) sounds like it would also be right, but it’s used to prevent bone marrow suppression in patients taking methotrexate. Darbepoetin (like erythropoietin) is used to stimulate red blood cell production.

em_goldman  were we supposed to know that she wasn't taking methotrexate (or did I miss that in the question stem)? +  
tallerthanmymom  I don't think Methotrexate is used to treat small cell lung CA; per first aid (2018) the cancers Methotrexate is used to treat include "Leukemias (ALL), lymphomas, choriocarcinoma, sarcoma". It also has some non-cancer uses in rhuematologic ds, ectopic pregnany and medical abortions. +  


The rhombencephalon would be on the actual fetus so just get rid of (D). The "black hole" that the fetus is floating in is the gestational sac so get rid of (C). Now I am no ultrasound expert but I know that the amniotic cavity eventually expands to fuse with the chorion thereby eliminating the chorionic cavity (B). In terms of where the amniotic cavity is shown in this image, I am not sure, so maybe someone can help but this leaves the yolk sac which typically appears within the gestational sac around 5.5 weeks.

kateinwonderland  At the end of the fourth week, the yolk sac presents the appearance of a small pear-shaped opening (traditionally called the umbilical vesicle), into the digestive tube by a long narrow tube, the vitelline duct. (Wiki) +3  
tallerthanmymom  But why does it look completely detached from the fetus? I eliminated yolk sac first because of this +  
makinallkindzofgainz  If you look reeeeeeeally closely, you'll see some signal between the yolk sac and the baby. Although you can't see the entire connection, they are connected. +1  
thotcandy  Pt is roughly 8 weeks pregnant so and typically by 9th week, Amniotic cavity has expended to fill entire volume of Gestational sac. So the entire black part around the fetus is GS/AC. +1  


submitted by sympathetikey(618),

Per FA (pg. 636): Concerning breast cancer...

"Amplification/overexpression of estrogen/ progesterone receptors or c-erbB2 (HER2, an EGF receptor) is common; ER ⊝, PR ⊝, and HER2/neu ⊝ form more aggressive."

sympathetikey  FA 2019 +1  
meningitis  Why others not it: Anticipation: Trinucleotide repeats; CAG (Huntington), CTG (Myotonic dyst), GAA (ataxia telangiectasia), CGG(Fragile X) Chromosomal rearrangement: Many but can think of Trisomy 21, BCR-Abl, etc Imprinting: Prader willi, angelman Loss of heterozygosity: loss of a single parent's contribution to part of its genome. A common occurrence in cancer, it often indicates the presence of tumor suppressor gene in the lost region. +1  
kai  trinucleotide repeats are not associated with breast cancer Neither are chromosomal rearrangements BRCA1,2 tumor supressor genes are associated with breast cancer, which is why I chose E, but I guess I should have bought the new First Aid.......... +  
charcot_bouchard  GAA is Freidrich Ataxia +3  
tulsigabbard  So is the amplification of the receptors unrelated to BRCA 1, 2? I'm still stuck on this as Sketchy states that breast cancer falls under the "two-hit" model. +  
tallerthanmymom  @tulsigabbard I think one of the keys here is the question stem; " what is the most likely cause of the OVERexpression in this pts tumor cells?" --> I think that the "2-Hit" model would lead to UNDERexpression of a tumor suppression gene rather than overexpression. Whereas amplification would cause OVERexpression of the HER2/estrogen and progesterone receptors. But, I don't think that amplification would be the answer if they were asking about a triple negative cancer. +  
tallerthanmymom  Also this is on page 632 of FA 2018 for those using that version +  
tulsigabbard  @tallerthanmymom - thank you! +  
drzed  I can understand why @tulsigabbard dropped out of the race--she's taking step 1 soon LOL +  


submitted by sympathetikey(618),

Per FA (pg. 636): Concerning breast cancer...

"Amplification/overexpression of estrogen/ progesterone receptors or c-erbB2 (HER2, an EGF receptor) is common; ER ⊝, PR ⊝, and HER2/neu ⊝ form more aggressive."

sympathetikey  FA 2019 +1  
meningitis  Why others not it: Anticipation: Trinucleotide repeats; CAG (Huntington), CTG (Myotonic dyst), GAA (ataxia telangiectasia), CGG(Fragile X) Chromosomal rearrangement: Many but can think of Trisomy 21, BCR-Abl, etc Imprinting: Prader willi, angelman Loss of heterozygosity: loss of a single parent's contribution to part of its genome. A common occurrence in cancer, it often indicates the presence of tumor suppressor gene in the lost region. +1  
kai  trinucleotide repeats are not associated with breast cancer Neither are chromosomal rearrangements BRCA1,2 tumor supressor genes are associated with breast cancer, which is why I chose E, but I guess I should have bought the new First Aid.......... +  
charcot_bouchard  GAA is Freidrich Ataxia +3  
tulsigabbard  So is the amplification of the receptors unrelated to BRCA 1, 2? I'm still stuck on this as Sketchy states that breast cancer falls under the "two-hit" model. +  
tallerthanmymom  @tulsigabbard I think one of the keys here is the question stem; " what is the most likely cause of the OVERexpression in this pts tumor cells?" --> I think that the "2-Hit" model would lead to UNDERexpression of a tumor suppression gene rather than overexpression. Whereas amplification would cause OVERexpression of the HER2/estrogen and progesterone receptors. But, I don't think that amplification would be the answer if they were asking about a triple negative cancer. +  
tallerthanmymom  Also this is on page 632 of FA 2018 for those using that version +  
tulsigabbard  @tallerthanmymom - thank you! +  
drzed  I can understand why @tulsigabbard dropped out of the race--she's taking step 1 soon LOL +  


submitted by mousie(126),

My understanding if BC>AC this is abnormal = conductive hearing loss = otosclerosis VS Sensoryneural hearing loss will have normal AC>BC = loss of hair cells

dentist  VS: progressive unilateral hearing loss, doesn't affect Rinne Test, associated with NF2 and actor Mark Ruffalo Otoslcerosis is (usually....) progressive bilateral hearing loss, BC > AC. source +  
tallerthanmymom  If BC > AC in BOTH ears, why does he have hearing loss in only one ear? My logic was that he probably had otosclerosis in both ears and then something extra going on in his right ear that would make it worse than the left. I still don't understand why otosclerosis is the best answer here. +  


submitted by sympathetikey(618),

Believe this question is referring to Visceral Leishmaniasis.

gabeb71  The give away is the Fever, Pancytopenia, and Hepatosplenomegaly after being bitten by an insect and developing the sore. +2  
tallerthanmymom  I got this question directly after the other visceral leishmania question and it made me second guess everything I thought I knew. +  
qball  Don't forget they like to infect macrophages. +  


Androgens cause acne. Testosterone is a better answer than Androstanediol b/c the Testosterone is associated with puberty, Androstanediol is more associated with the adrenal glands.

meningitis  I chose Testosterone but I almost chose GnRH because it is surged when starting puberty and therefore increases everything downstream. +5  
temmy  When answering the question, i thought to myself that if GnRH is correct, LH will be too cos GnRH stimulates the Leydig cells via LH to release testosterone. That left testosterone as the best answer because it had the most direct effect. +6  
goaiable  GnRH and LH are increased in a pulsatile fashion at the onset of puberty, so idk if that constitutes as the "rapid increase" that this question is asking for. Tripped me up also. +  
tallerthanmymom  I originally eliminated testosterone and chose androstanediol because women can have Acne Vulgaris too, and Testosterone should not be rising to the same degree. Do I not understand how puberty works? +  
drzed  Women can still make testosterone though; and androstAnediOL is not the same as androstEnediONE +