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That's not what's upsetting. What's upsetting is that there is NO correct answer available. You have to put yourself into the head of whatever twit wrote this question and try to guess how much they care about the fact that aggregation (GPIIB/IIIA + TXA2 mediated) and adherence (GPIB mediated) are not the same thing.
for bulleted lists, be sure to follow the plus sign with a space! :)
furthermore, FA 2019 pg 47
You're a good man.
I think the distribution half-life and elimination half-life was saying that by the time you checked, it had fully distributed (10 half-lifes) and had not been cleared yet (super long half-life)
1000ug= 1mg and 1g=1000000ug
so then 4ug/ml * 1g/ 1000000ug= 0.000004 g/ml
0.000004g/ml * 1000ml/L= 0.004 g/L
80mg*1g/1000mg= 0.08 g
vd= 0.08g/ 0.04g/l =20L
Or, like a normal human, convert 4ug/mL into mg/L ... which is 4 mg/L. 80mg/4mg/L is 20L.
I hate NBME... I thought these stupid conversions were over after undergrad. Nope.
You do 1000000000s of these a day if you do any type of labwork o.O You just get used to it eventually
I think the reason dietician was incorrect is because she has had diabetes for 6 years and her diabetes was well controlled that entire time. Then for the past two months her glucose control has been poor. This is pointing towards the issue NOT being that they don't know how to manage the diabetes so referring to a dietician wouldn't be useful.
99.99/100 times the answer will never include referral. The only reason I do not say 100/100 is because there may be an answer one day that is to refer, but through all of UW, Rx, and NBME it has never been to refer, so do with that info what you will
I would also take into account that this patient has had HTN and T2DM for 20 years. His kidneys are probably shot.
@tiredofstudying 100%, thats probably why the mentioned it, if you didn't know wtf ketorolac was (I didnt) but i saw a long 20 year history of HTN, DM I assumed his kidney def could not be fully functional
I just ordered sushi from Japan.
I got this wrong too, but I think the exercise of internal rotation makes sense because it will isolate the muscle (without assistance by teres minor for adduction).
The subscapularis assists in medial (internal) rotation and adduction, but the teres minor also assists in adduction, so the best choice to isolate the subscapularis would be internal (medial) rotation. Choice E
@tiredofstudying teres major also internally rotates so it wouldn't really be isolated either.
I guess Tmajor isn't relevant cuz it's not a SITS muscle? Still a stupid question.
I just remember subscapularis muscle function by thinking that Subs go into the sea (or internal/medially rotate). Also the only muscle set that happens to perform internal/medial rotation in the rotator cuff set.