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Comments ...

 +0  (nbme20#19)

does anyone know what the structure E is pointing to?

thomasburton  Not sure looks like it might be free ribosomes or other such small cytosolic structure (I picked E too, thought B looked way too big!)
targetusmle  same here!! marked e thinking of it as a mitochondria

 +1  (nbme20#41)

If you look at Uworld question ID 12299 it has a wonderful explanation for this. If they share the same epitopes, it will have a downward slope. If they share none of the same epitopes, the line will be horizontal across the graph (indicating no change as the amount of Y added increases)

eacv  omg YES!! thanks Uworld I got it correct! exactly this qx asked the exact opposite thing! Hahaha I loved it !!




Subcomments ...

submitted by monoloco(47),

Anytime you have a person who bumps their head, gets back up, and then has severe issues or dies like 6 hours later -- you have yourself an epidural hematoma from laceration to the middle MENINGEAL artery. (Goljan really emphasizes that you don't screw up and select middle cerebral.) You know it has to be an arterial laceration since the dura is tightly adhered to the skull's inner surface. Goljan referred to his experience with it as needing pliers to remove the dura from the skull; graphic, but it drives the point home. Tenting seen on CT is because the epidural hematoma gets stuck between the suture lines. When it manages to break past one of the suture lines, it is my understanding that then is when you get severe sequelae, like death or whatever.

usmile1  omg monoloco!! I miss you dude! We used to hang forever ago, hope all is going well in med school! +  


submitted by haliburton(74),

this is a cervical spinal cord section. the cuneate fasciculus is intact (UE) vibration and proprioception, but the white section is the gracile fasciculus (LE) and is damaged. I think the lateral portion that is uneven is just natural/artifact.

arezpr  thorax section +3  
guillo12  How do you know the gracile fasciculus is damage?!?! +1  
cr  which parte of the image its damage?, the pink? or black? +  
usmile1  the pink park yes +1  
d_holles  If you look at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gracile_fasciculus#/media/File:Spinal_cord_tracts_-_English.svg you can see that the closer to the center = legs, while further away = arms. +1  
hyperfukus  i still don't see where the damage is lol! FML +  
hyperfukus  i finally figured it out lol that was a slow moment i hope im not this slow on step yikes! +  
angelaq11  @hyperfukus I had the same problem at first, marked it and then came back. If you remember, in the spinal cord the white matter and gray matter are "reversed" compared to the brain. That said, if the butterfly shaped region (ie, the gray matter) is colored (in this case) lilac and the rest (ie, white matter) is blackish, the only thing that is actually abnormal, is the region where the dorsal columns are, because it stains just like the normal gray matter. After that, you have to think about which fasciculus is damaged, the gracilis or the cuneatus. The gracilis is medial while the cuneatus is lateral (picture someone with glued legs and open arms). Hope this helped +  


Ok I get that if 500 already have the disease then the risk pool is dropped to 2000 students but the question specifically says that the test is done a year later...if 500 people had chlamydia, you would treat them. You don't become immune to chlamydia after infection so they would go back into the risk pool, meaning the pool would return to 2500. The answer should be 8%, this was a bad question.

thepacksurvives  Yeah, this was my issue. I got it wrong because of this-- still don't understand the logic bc you can get chlamydia multiple times +  
hungrybox  FUCK you're right. Damn I didn't even think about that. That's fucking dumb. I guess this is why nobody gets perfect scores on this exam lol. Once you get smart enough, the errors in the questions start tripping you up. Lucky for me I'm lightyears behind that stage lmao +2  
usmile1  to make it even more poorly written, it says they are doing a screening program for FIRST YEAR women college students. So one year later, are they following this same group of students, or would they be screening the incoming first years? +2  


submitted by hajj(0),

can anyone explain this? i know median for y is higher by calculation but x has two modes so how come y has higher mode?

lispectedwumbologist  The mode in X is 32 and the mode in Y is 80 +  
lispectedwumbologist  The mode in X is 70 and the mode in Y is 80* +1  
hajj  Thank you! +  
hungrybox  Just checking in so I could feel smart about getting this right despite bombing the rest of the test lmao +2  
usmleuser007  can someone please explain the median in this +  
nala_ula  The median can be known by first assembling the numbers in order from least to greater. If it's an uneven number set, the number in the middle is the median (for example: 4, 10, 12, 20, 27 = median is 12 since this is the number in the middle); if the numbers are even then you have to take the two values in the middle, add them up and divide them by 2 [for example: 4, 10, 12, 12, 20, 27 = (12+12)/2 = 12]. Page 261 on FA 2019 explains it as well. Not sure if I explained it well... good luck on the test, people! +  
dubin johnson  Can someone please explain how the mode for Y than X. Not sure how we got the values above. Thanks! +  
dubin johnson  I mean how is the mode for Y greater than mode for x? +1  
sgarzon15  Mode is the one that repeats the most once you list them in order +  
usmile1  Median would be the BP value that the person in the 50th percentile of each group would have. So for group X, to find the 50th percent value, I added 8 + 12 + 32 = 52, which is right above 50, so the median would be 70 mmHg for group X. Doing the same thing for group Y, 2+8+10+20+ 18 = 58; the 50th percentile would fall in group that had a BP of 90 mmHg. which makes the median higher for group Y. hope that isn't wrong, and helps someone! +4