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Comments ...

 +0  (nbme24#13)

Membranous nephropathy and minimal change disease can be easily ruled out as they are nephrotic syndromes. Tubulointerstitial nephritis (aka acute interstitial nephritis) can be ruled out as it causes WBC casts not RBC as seen in this question. Papillary necrosis - either has no casts or it might show WBC casts but not RBC because the problem is not in the glomeruli.

table of nomenclature on page 582 explains that proliferative just means hyper cellular glomeruli. Given the patients history of sore throat two weeks ago, now presenting with Nephritic Syndrome with RBC casts, proliferative glomerulonephritis is the only reasonable answer.


 +1  (nbme24#11)

from Boards&Beyond- Aortic stenosis leads to Syncope, Angina, and Left heart failure. Syncope is due to failure to increase cardiac output due to increased afterload. Angina is due to increased LVEDP which leads to decreased coronary blood flow. And left heart failure is due to increased LVEDP.


 +1  (nbme20#19)

does anyone know what the structure E is pointing to?

thomasburton  Not sure looks like it might be free ribosomes or other such small cytosolic structure (I picked E too, thought B looked way too big!)
targetusmle  same here!! marked e thinking of it as a mitochondria
msyrett  Glycogen Granules! They are not membrane bound and float freely in the cytoplasm.

 +4  (nbme20#41)

If you look at Uworld question ID 12299 it has a wonderful explanation for this. If they share the same epitopes, it will have a downward slope. If they share none of the same epitopes, the line will be horizontal across the graph (indicating no change as the amount of Y added increases)

eacv  omg YES!! thanks Uworld I got it correct! exactly this qx asked the exact opposite thing! Hahaha I loved it !!




Subcomments ...

submitted by m-ice(135),

Case series is a study in which the researchers present the history and treatment of a small group of similar patients, without describing any sorting into groups or randomization.

drmomo  only 3 patients +  
usmile1  uggghhh not in FA ... +  


submitted by dragon3(6),

Can anyone explain why bacteria is neutrophils, viral/fungi are lymphocytes? I know this is a fundamental concept...

lolmedlol  i think neutrophils (in addition to lacking granzymes and perforins which are used to kill viruses and fungi) dont recognize intracellular things; viral antigens needs to be processed and presented on an MHC for the lymphocytes to recognize +1  
usmile1  also neutrophils are only seen in acute inflammation. This pt has longstanding inflammation which is associated with monocytes, lymphocytes, macrophages, plasma cells. +  
usmlecrasherss  Neutrophil come and goes quick like day or two , after that rest of immune cells take care +  


submitted by m-ice(135),

This boy has meningitis caused by Strep pneumoniae, the most common cause of infectious meningitis in general. The vaccine for Strep pneumo is a polysaccharide protein conjugate vaccine. The other major bacteria with a vaccine like this is H. influenzae.

usmile1  also the meningococcal vaccine! +  


submitted by famylife(37),

Phase III Clinical Trial (per FA 2019, p. 256): Large number of patients randomly assigned either to the treatment under investigation or to the standard of care (or placebo).

usmile1  also just to verify, there is no such thing as phase 0 right? +  
madojo  Not that i know of or is in FA +  


submitted by nwinkelmann(111),

Does anyone have a good explanation for why decreased levels of inhibin is wrong? From my understanding, inhibin and activin work together, in that inhibin binds and blocks activin leading to decreased feedback on hypothalamus and activin increases FSH and GnRH production.. thus, if you decrease inhibin then you would have increased activin which would lead to increased GnRH and FSH, right? I found one article talking about it in regards to puberty, but it seems to be a hypothesis/not confirmed at this point... is that why? But still... how do I rule it out on a test?

yb_26  I also picked decreased inhibin. may be it was one of the "experimental questions", which are not even counted on the real exam +  
artist90  Inceased FSH will lead to spermatogenesis and spermiogenesis NOT Increase in Testosterone which is causing increased Height of this pt +1  
artist90  Inhibin B only has negative feeback on FSH not GnRH. see the diagram on the topic of semineferous tubules in FA. Testosterone has a negative feedback on BOTH LH and GnRH +1  
usmile1  Kind of like how nocturnal pulsatile GNRH release occurs during sleep to stimulate growth (FA page327), the same thing happens for puberty. Pg 325 in FA, "pulsatile GnRH leads to puberty and fertility." It doesn't explicitly state during sleep, but pulsatile release of GnRH leading to pulsatile release of LH and FSH will lead to puberty. Puberty starts in the brain, its onset really has nothing to do with decreased inhibin levels which happens in the testes. hope that makes sense! +  


submitted by m-ice(135),

This woman has a lot of signs that point toward an intestinal parasitic infection: recent travel to Papua New Guinea, cough and alveolar infiltrates, high eosinophil count, and a stool sample that has a worm in it. Most likely the patient has a Strongyloides infection, as this is the intestinal parasite that shows larva on stool sample. Basically all intestinal parasites can be treated with Bendazole drugs, such as Thiabendazole. Praziquantel would be more appropriate for a worm or liver fluke infection.

fulminant_life  just to add to the explanation above," cutaneous larva currens" is a specific finding for strongyloides. Also the picture they used is the exact same one on wikipedia lol +3  
yb_26  they really should add Wikipedia in the list of top-rated review resources with A+ level of recommendation in FA2020))) +2  
usmile1  also a side note: cutaneous larva CURRENS is pathognomonic for strongyloides whereas Cutaneous larva MIGRANS is for ancylostoma braziliense or nectar Americanus +3  


davidw  If the Infarct was on the right side they you would have a decrease in PCWP +  
usmile1  yes exactly. Cardiogenic shock always has decreased CO and increased SVR. PCWP is the tricky part. If its right sided, there isn't enough blood making it to the LA (which is what PCWP measures) thus PCWP would decrease. If it is left sided, as indicated in this question by the crackles in the lungs, the blood is backing up in the left side of the heart so the PCWP would go up. +2  


submitted by m-ice(135),

Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog (PGE2) that acts on the stomach to promote mucus protection of the stomach lining, but also acts in the uterus to encourage contraction, which makes it useful for abortion.

usmile1  perfect except it is a PGE1 analog, not 2 +  
krewfoo99  PGE2 will increase uterine tone (Pg. 270 FA 2018) +  
drmohandes  Misoprostol prevents NSAID-induced peptic ulcers. Side-effect: also gets rid of baby. +  


submitted by jus2234(10),

The graph shows a decrease in compliance of the lungs. Of the options, diffuse pulmonary fibrosis is the only choice that is an example of a restrictive lung disease which would decrease compliance

nor16  asthma = emphysema = chronic bronchitits, obstructive. leaves 2 out of 5... +  
usmile1  Common causes of decreased lung compliance are pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonia and pulmonary edema. So yes pneumonia could possibly cause the decreased compliance shown, but the vignette says the patient has "9 month history of progressive SOB." That couldn't reasonably be pneumonia, leaving diffuse pulmonary fibrosis as the best answer. +  


submitted by mousie(88),

Is 45 minutes too long to be anaphylactic and would the absence of rash (urticaria, pruritus) RO anaphylactic?

hayayah  Yes! Allergic/anaphylactic blood transfusion reaction is within minutes to 2-3 hours. (pg 114 of the 2019 FA has a list of them ordered by time) +3  
hayayah  (also allergy / anaphylactic presents with more skin findings (urticaria, pruritus) +1  
seagull  The time through me off too. I though ABO mismatch since it occured around an hour. I thought TRALI would take a little longer. +4  
charcot_bouchard  Guys anaphylactic reaction to whole blood doesnt occur much except for selective IgA defi. so look out for prev history of mucosal infection. And it can have all feature of type 1 HS inclding bronchospasm. +2  
soph  I saw hypotension and though anaphylaxis........ -.- +  
usmile1  Chest Xray showed "bilateral diffuse airspace disease". This is much more indicative of TRALI than anaphylaxis which would have wheezing and possibly respiratory arrest but no actual damage to the lungs. Additionally there was no urticaria or pruritus one would expect to see with anaphylaxis. +  


submitted by nwinkelmann(111),

I just thought of a way to (hopefully) avoid getting these types of answers wrong. First, when I read them I always look for the least "asshole" answer. Then, if you're still stuck, try to put the statement into a quote that you would say to a patient as a physician, remembering that open-ended, non-judgmental questions are ideal.

The answer for this could be phrased as a question/statement by the doctor, to the family, as "Tell me more about how this impacting your family and daily life." Had it been phrased like that, I DEFINITELY wouldn't have gotten it wrong. I would have never even had the opportunity to make an assumption about the family's fighting being due to diet concerns and thus needing a nutritionist referal (which is what I chose).

usmile1  I think the reason dietician was incorrect is because she has had diabetes for 6 years and her diabetes was well controlled that entire time. Then for the past two months her glucose control has been poor. This is pointing towards the issue NOT being that they don't know how to manage the diabetes so referring to a dietician wouldn't be useful. +  


submitted by lsmarshall(216),

"Air droplets" sounds like respiratory (saliva or water) droplets. Inhalation of toxoplasma oocysts in cat feces isn't quite the same; not to say I know exactly what the oocysts are inhaled as (just microscopic dry cat poop particles?). Ingestion of undercooked meat to get the cysts is certainly a ROT for toxoplasma.

Toxoplasma as TORCH has triad of hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications (intracerebral), and chorioretinitis. chorioretinitis can be in congenital CMV or toxoplasmosis. Periventricular calcifications are in CMV. Congenital CMV usually has hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash, “blueberry muffin” rash, chorioretinitis, and periventricular calcifications.

usmile1  also note that toxoplasma can cause the "blueberry muffin" rash (also rubella can as well) +  


submitted by famylife(37),

To rule out SIADH type: "Serum potassium concentration generally remains unchanged. Movement of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space prevents dilutional hypokalemia. As hydrogen ions move intracellularly, they are exchanged for potassium in order to maintain electroneutrality."

https://www.medscape.com/answers/246650-8383/how-does-syndrome-of-inappropriate-antidiuretic-hormone-secretion-siadh-affect-serum-potassium-levels

usmile1  Does anyone know if SIADH is associated with hypertension? I don't think it is due to the body's response of downregulating aldosterone, but if someone could verify that I would appreciate it. +  
sunshinesweetheart  @usmile1 pg 579 FA 2019 = BP can be normal or high in SIADH +  
usmlecrasherss  in SIADH GOLJAN says you have diluteonal hypokalemia +  


submitted by monoloco(64),

Anytime you have a person who bumps their head, gets back up, and then has severe issues or dies like 6 hours later -- you have yourself an epidural hematoma from laceration to the middle MENINGEAL artery. (Goljan really emphasizes that you don't screw up and select middle cerebral.) You know it has to be an arterial laceration since the dura is tightly adhered to the skull's inner surface. Goljan referred to his experience with it as needing pliers to remove the dura from the skull; graphic, but it drives the point home. Tenting seen on CT is because the epidural hematoma gets stuck between the suture lines. When it manages to break past one of the suture lines, it is my understanding that then is when you get severe sequelae, like death or whatever.

usmile1  omg monoloco!! I miss you dude! We used to hang forever ago, hope all is going well in med school! +2  


submitted by haliburton(92),

this is a cervical spinal cord section. the cuneate fasciculus is intact (UE) vibration and proprioception, but the white section is the gracile fasciculus (LE) and is damaged. I think the lateral portion that is uneven is just natural/artifact.

arezpr  thorax section +3  
guillo12  How do you know the gracile fasciculus is damage?!?! +2  
cr  which parte of the image its damage?, the pink? or black? +  
usmile1  the pink park yes +1  
d_holles  If you look at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Gracile_fasciculus#/media/File:Spinal_cord_tracts_-_English.svg you can see that the closer to the center = legs, while further away = arms. +1  
hyperfukus  i still don't see where the damage is lol! FML +  
hyperfukus  i finally figured it out lol that was a slow moment i hope im not this slow on step yikes! +  
angelaq11  @hyperfukus I had the same problem at first, marked it and then came back. If you remember, in the spinal cord the white matter and gray matter are "reversed" compared to the brain. That said, if the butterfly shaped region (ie, the gray matter) is colored (in this case) lilac and the rest (ie, white matter) is blackish, the only thing that is actually abnormal, is the region where the dorsal columns are, because it stains just like the normal gray matter. After that, you have to think about which fasciculus is damaged, the gracilis or the cuneatus. The gracilis is medial while the cuneatus is lateral (picture someone with glued legs and open arms). Hope this helped +1  


Ok I get that if 500 already have the disease then the risk pool is dropped to 2000 students but the question specifically says that the test is done a year later...if 500 people had chlamydia, you would treat them. You don't become immune to chlamydia after infection so they would go back into the risk pool, meaning the pool would return to 2500. The answer should be 8%, this was a bad question.

thepacksurvives  Yeah, this was my issue. I got it wrong because of this-- still don't understand the logic bc you can get chlamydia multiple times +1  
hungrybox  FUCK you're right. Damn I didn't even think about that. That's fucking dumb. I guess this is why nobody gets perfect scores on this exam lol. Once you get smart enough, the errors in the questions start tripping you up. Lucky for me I'm lightyears behind that stage lmao +3  
usmile1  to make it even more poorly written, it says they are doing a screening program for FIRST YEAR women college students. So one year later, are they following this same group of students, or would they be screening the incoming first years? +3  
dashou19  I think the same at first, but after a second read, the question stem said "additional" 200 students, which means the first 500 students don't count. +  


submitted by hajj(0),

can anyone explain this? i know median for y is higher by calculation but x has two modes so how come y has higher mode?

lispectedwumbologist  The mode in X is 32 and the mode in Y is 80 +  
lispectedwumbologist  The mode in X is 70 and the mode in Y is 80* +1  
hajj  Thank you! +  
hungrybox  Just checking in so I could feel smart about getting this right despite bombing the rest of the test lmao +2  
usmleuser007  can someone please explain the median in this +  
nala_ula  The median can be known by first assembling the numbers in order from least to greater. If it's an uneven number set, the number in the middle is the median (for example: 4, 10, 12, 20, 27 = median is 12 since this is the number in the middle); if the numbers are even then you have to take the two values in the middle, add them up and divide them by 2 [for example: 4, 10, 12, 12, 20, 27 = (12+12)/2 = 12]. Page 261 on FA 2019 explains it as well. Not sure if I explained it well... good luck on the test, people! +  
dubin johnson  Can someone please explain how the mode for Y than X. Not sure how we got the values above. Thanks! +  
dubin johnson  I mean how is the mode for Y greater than mode for x? +1  
sgarzon15  Mode is the one that repeats the most once you list them in order +  
usmile1  Median would be the BP value that the person in the 50th percentile of each group would have. So for group X, to find the 50th percent value, I added 8 + 12 + 32 = 52, which is right above 50, so the median would be 70 mmHg for group X. Doing the same thing for group Y, 2+8+10+20+ 18 = 58; the 50th percentile would fall in group that had a BP of 90 mmHg. which makes the median higher for group Y. hope that isn't wrong, and helps someone! +4