to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
from Boards&Beyond- Aortic stenosis leads to Syncope, Angina, and Left heart failure. Syncope is due to failure to increase cardiac output due to increased afterload. Angina is due to increased LVEDP which leads to decreased coronary blood flow. And left heart failure is due to increased LVEDP.
If you look at Uworld question ID 12299 it has a wonderful explanation for this. If they share the same epitopes, it will have a downward slope. If they share none of the same epitopes, the line will be horizontal across the graph (indicating no change as the amount of Y added increases)
Case series is a study in which the researchers present the history and treatment of a small group of similar patients, without describing any sorting into groups or randomization.
Can anyone explain why bacteria is neutrophils, viral/fungi are lymphocytes? I know this is a fundamental concept...
This boy has meningitis caused by Strep pneumoniae, the most common cause of infectious meningitis in general. The vaccine for Strep pneumo is a polysaccharide protein conjugate vaccine. The other major bacteria with a vaccine like this is H. influenzae.
Phase III Clinical Trial (per FA 2019, p. 256): Large number of patients randomly assigned either to the treatment under investigation or to the standard of care (or placebo).
Does anyone have a good explanation for why decreased levels of inhibin is wrong? From my understanding, inhibin and activin work together, in that inhibin binds and blocks activin leading to decreased feedback on hypothalamus and activin increases FSH and GnRH production.. thus, if you decrease inhibin then you would have increased activin which would lead to increased GnRH and FSH, right? I found one article talking about it in regards to puberty, but it seems to be a hypothesis/not confirmed at this point... is that why? But still... how do I rule it out on a test?
This woman has a lot of signs that point toward an intestinal parasitic infection: recent travel to Papua New Guinea, cough and alveolar infiltrates, high eosinophil count, and a stool sample that has a worm in it. Most likely the patient has a Strongyloides infection, as this is the intestinal parasite that shows larva on stool sample. Basically all intestinal parasites can be treated with Bendazole drugs, such as Thiabendazole. Praziquantel would be more appropriate for a worm or liver fluke infection.
Some Reading: https://www.cathlabdigest.com/articles/Cardiogenic-Shock-and-Hemodynamic-Support-A-Realistic-Management-Approach
Misoprostol is a prostaglandin analog (PGE2) that acts on the stomach to promote mucus protection of the stomach lining, but also acts in the uterus to encourage contraction, which makes it useful for abortion.
The graph shows a decrease in compliance of the lungs. Of the options, diffuse pulmonary fibrosis is the only choice that is an example of a restrictive lung disease which would decrease compliance
Is 45 minutes too long to be anaphylactic and would the absence of rash (urticaria, pruritus) RO anaphylactic?
I just thought of a way to (hopefully) avoid getting these types of answers wrong. First, when I read them I always look for the least "asshole" answer. Then, if you're still stuck, try to put the statement into a quote that you would say to a patient as a physician, remembering that open-ended, non-judgmental questions are ideal.
The answer for this could be phrased as a question/statement by the doctor, to the family, as "Tell me more about how this impacting your family and daily life." Had it been phrased like that, I DEFINITELY wouldn't have gotten it wrong. I would have never even had the opportunity to make an assumption about the family's fighting being due to diet concerns and thus needing a nutritionist referal (which is what I chose).
"Air droplets" sounds like respiratory (saliva or water) droplets. Inhalation of toxoplasma oocysts in cat feces isn't quite the same; not to say I know exactly what the oocysts are inhaled as (just microscopic dry cat poop particles?). Ingestion of undercooked meat to get the cysts is certainly a ROT for toxoplasma.
Toxoplasma as TORCH has triad of hydrocephalus, cerebral calcifications (intracerebral), and chorioretinitis. chorioretinitis can be in congenital CMV or toxoplasmosis. Periventricular calcifications are in CMV. Congenital CMV usually has hearing loss, seizures, petechial rash, “blueberry muffin” rash, chorioretinitis, and periventricular calcifications.
To rule out SIADH type: "Serum potassium concentration generally remains unchanged. Movement of potassium from the intracellular space to the extracellular space prevents dilutional hypokalemia. As hydrogen ions move intracellularly, they are exchanged for potassium in order to maintain electroneutrality."
Anytime you have a person who bumps their head, gets back up, and then has severe issues or dies like 6 hours later -- you have yourself an epidural hematoma from laceration to the middle MENINGEAL artery. (Goljan really emphasizes that you don't screw up and select middle cerebral.) You know it has to be an arterial laceration since the dura is tightly adhered to the skull's inner surface. Goljan referred to his experience with it as needing pliers to remove the dura from the skull; graphic, but it drives the point home. Tenting seen on CT is because the epidural hematoma gets stuck between the suture lines. When it manages to break past one of the suture lines, it is my understanding that then is when you get severe sequelae, like death or whatever.
this is a cervical spinal cord section. the cuneate fasciculus is intact (UE) vibration and proprioception, but the white section is the gracile fasciculus (LE) and is damaged. I think the lateral portion that is uneven is just natural/artifact.
Ok I get that if 500 already have the disease then the risk pool is dropped to 2000 students but the question specifically says that the test is done a year later...if 500 people had chlamydia, you would treat them. You don't become immune to chlamydia after infection so they would go back into the risk pool, meaning the pool would return to 2500. The answer should be 8%, this was a bad question.
can anyone explain this? i know median for y is higher by calculation but x has two modes so how come y has higher mode?
Membranous nephropathy and minimal change disease can be easily ruled out as they are nephrotic syndromes. Tubulointerstitial nephritis (aka acute interstitial nephritis) can be ruled out as it causes WBC casts not RBC as seen in this question. Papillary necrosis - either has no casts or it might show WBC casts but not RBC because the problem is not in the glomeruli.
table of nomenclature on page 582 explains that proliferative just means hyper cellular glomeruli. Given the patients history of sore throat two weeks ago, now presenting with Nephritic Syndrome with RBC casts, proliferative glomerulonephritis is the only reasonable answer.