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 +3  (nbme23#36)

46,XX DSD due to excessive and inappropriate exposure to androgenic steroids during early gestation (i.e. congenital adrenal hyperplasia).

jboud86  I'm just adding the page number from FA 2019 to this comment. FA 2019 page 625.

 +0  (nbme23#31)

Straight from FA 2018 pg 603: Cleft lip and cleft palate have distinct, multifactorial etiologies, but often occur together."


 -1  (nbme23#1)

The rhombencephalon would be on the actual fetus so just get rid of (D). The "black hole" that the fetus is floating in is the gestational sac so get rid of (C). Now I am no ultrasound expert but I know that the amniotic cavity eventually expands to fuse with the chorion thereby eliminating the chorionic cavity (B). In terms of where the amniotic cavity is shown in this image, I am not sure, so maybe someone can help but this leaves the yolk sac which typically appears within the gestational sac around 5.5 weeks.

kateinwonderland  At the end of the fourth week, the yolk sac presents the appearance of a small pear-shaped opening (traditionally called the umbilical vesicle), into the digestive tube by a long narrow tube, the vitelline duct. (Wiki)

 +1  (nbme22#12)

Can't be 17α-hydroxylase because this would present with hypertension and some sort of ambiguous sexual presentation (males) or lack of secondary sexual development (females). Can't be 11β-hydroxylase because this would present with the opposite of the kid's presentation due to the production of 11-deoxycorticosterone (similar effects to aldosterone but not nearly as potent). The other two would not really make sense since there are increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone





Subcomments ...

I’m going to point out that a normal healthy kid with no cardiac history or symptoms and no family history of sudden cardiac death for a pre-sports physical is probably going to have a benign exam no matter what you think you hear.

the260guy  What a weird question. I could definitely hear a fixed split heart sound. And it was loudest over the pulmonic valve too which makes it even more of a dirty question. But I guess what I was actually hearing was an S3 heart sound. +  
wutuwantbruv  @the260guy I believe the splitting is being heard only during inspiration, making this normal physiologic splitting. Perhaps that's just my ears. +  
angelaq11  don't have adobe and couldn't download it, so I just chose whatever, but your explanation suddenly makes me feel dumb but grateful! Loving your tips! @benwhite_dotcom +  


How is this the answer if there is no family history of recurrent fractures? I thought osteogenesis imperfecta was autosomal dominant?

seagull  Exactly!! it's an autosomal dominate disease! +  
emcee  Autosomal dominant diseases are variably expressive. Still, I think this was a badly written question (should have given us some family history). +  
wutuwantbruv  Also, FA says that fractures may occur during the birthing process, which is what I believe they were going for. I don't believe these findings would be seen at birth with any of the other choices. +  
d_holles  Yeah I thought I outsmarted NBME by selecting Rickets bc it said no family history ... guess I got played lol. +3  
jean_young2019  Could it be a sporadic cases? Spontaneous Mutation This is a change in a gene that occurs without an obvious cause, in a family where there is no history of the particular gene mutation. OI is inherited as an autosomal dominant trait. Approximately 35% of cases have no family history and are called "sporadic" cases. In sporadic cases, OI is believed to result from a spontaneous new mutation. http://www.oif.org/site/PageServer?pagename=Glossary +  


submitted by mousie(83),

Can someone please explain this to me? I don't understand why starting the other drug would not count as exclusion criteria?

seagull  This has to do with Intention-to-treat analysis. Essentially, when participants are non-adherent but the data shouldn't be lost. They just undergo another statistical model to account for their changes. Here is a nice video https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Kps3VzbykFQ&t=7s +7  
dr.xx  Where does the question mention "intention-to-treat"? +  
notadoctor  They seem to be pretty obsessed with "intention-to-treat" it's been asked in one way or another in all the new NBMEs that I've done. (Haven't done 24 as yet) +3  
wutuwantbruv  They don't, intention-to-treat is just the best way to go about it @dr.xx +  
smc213  Great for ITT: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=Kps3VzbykFQ +  
yex  I agree with @notadoctor !! +  


submitted by uslme123(9),

This question makes no sense to me. She has an extremely low opening pressure yet has signs of increased intracranial pressure. Did they mean to put 32 cm H20?????????

uslme123  Standard lab values are incorrect, way to go NBME. +1  
wutuwantbruv  I think they mean to put mm Hg. Normal CSF pressure is about 100-180 mm H20 which equates to about 8-15 mm Hg. +2  
alexb  I lost a bit of time wondering about that ugh lol +  
mjmejora  I thought there must be an obstruction in the ventricles somewhere preventing csf from getting to the spine. so pressure is low in spinal tap but in the head it must be really high. +  


submitted by dr.xx(42),

Congenital adrenal hyperplasia due to 21-hydroxylase deficiency.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Congenital_adrenal_hyperplasia_due_to_21-hydroxylase_deficiency

wutuwantbruv  Can't be 17α-hydroxylase because this would present with hypertension and some sort of ambiguous sexual presentation (males) or lack of secondary sexual development (females). Can't be 11β-hydroxylase because this would present with the opposite of the kid's presentation due to the production of 11-deoxycorticosterone (similar effects to aldosterone but not nearly as potent). The other two would not really make sense since there are increased levels of 17-hydroxyprogesterone. +  


submitted by gh889(36),

The answer is due to an exception outlined here where niacin is used in pts w/o diabetes who have refractory hypertriglyceridemia at high risk or has a hx of pancreatitis.

I agree that fibrates are first line (and so does that article) but NBME was honing in on a specific exception that niacin can also be used since VLDL and TGs are high in hypertriglyceridemia.

The "clue" they had was "recurrent pancreatitis" which is supposedly a lead towards niacin.

I also put increase HDL....

wutuwantbruv  Correct, you would not want to give fibrates to someone with recurrent pancreatitis since fibrates increase the risk of cholesterol gallstones due to inhibition of cholesterol 7α-hydroxylase. +  
kernicterusthefrog  FYI @gh889 can't follow your link w/o an NYIT username and password, unless there's a more tech-savvy way around that.. I appreciate the info, though. Niacin rx for familial hypertriglyceridemia w/ recurrent pancreatitis. Now I know.. +1  
impostersyndromel1000  Great points, very in depth knowledge taking place here. Also, familial hypertriglyceridemia (per FA 2019 pg 94) has hepatic overproduction of VLDL so picking this would have been the easiest answer (in retrospect) +1  
hyperfukus  @impostersyndrome1000 literally that's the ONE thing i remembered and i went YOLO lol cuz i was staring for a while +