sympathetikeyI would say this is Lynch Syndrome (APC is usually thousands of polyps) but lynch syndrome would generally have a family history of other cancers as well, so you might be right. Either way, both autosomal dominant so win win.+12019-05-31T22:37:41Z
smc213uptodate states: Classic FAP is characterized by the presence of 100 or more adenomatous colorectal polyps+2019-06-25T05:28:32Z
dickass@sympathetikey Lynch Syndrome is literally called "Hereditary NON-POLYPOSIS colorectal cancer"+12019-09-16T11:30:02Z
Ok but what if she was homozygous, is this disease lethal when it's homozygous?
lilyoI also chose 100% with that same reasoning!!!+2019-11-16T20:50:37Z
lilyo@usmlecrasher, Yes it does so which is why if they inherited they have 100% chance of developing colon cancer later in life and the question was confusing because it didnt ask what is the percentage that this patient will have children with this mutation? It might be my language barrier but I don't know.+2019-11-16T20:53:58Z
diegolc26Its a little tricky bk they want you to think the probability of developing cancer IF the offspring HAS the mutation, which is 50%. I mean, he has 50% chances of inheriting the cancer developing mutation. Thats how I think they want to trick us. +2019-11-27T03:48:56Z
it has 100% penetrance i guess , if you have that gene