NBME 21

nbme21/Block 1/Question#42

A 36-year-old woman undergoes a total hysterectomy ...

Hyperplasia

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submitted by halux(1),

can some one please explain why is the hyperplasia?

beeip  Loss of negative feedback from resected ovaries leads to gonadotroph hyperplasia.
halux  so, the explanation is that in the absence of Estrogen negative feedback inhibition to LH and FSH, this leads to Gonadotrophs Hyperplasia at the Pituitary resulting in elevated LH and FSH secretion levels? I get busted by this one :/ Thanks in advance!

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submitted by beeip(7),

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