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NBME 24 Answers
A 55-year-old woman comes to the physician because ...
I thought it was ALS too (and I think it still could be?) but my thought process was that a lower motor neuron lesion would be the more specific answer.
Yeah makes sense, just threw me off cause ALS is both lower and upper motor neuron problems. Corticospinal tract would have been a better answer if they described more upper motor neuron symptoms, but as you said, they only describe lower motor neuron symptoms. Thanks!
Agree I thought ALS too but eliminated Peripheral nerves and LMN because I guess I thought they were the same thing ....??? Am I way off here or could someone maybe explain how they are different?
peripheral nerves would include motor & sensory, whereas LMN would be just motor
Also, a LMN damage wouldn't include both hand and LE unless it was somehow diffuse as in Guil-barre syndrome. It would likely be specific to part of a body. right???
No. if it was a peri nerve it would be limited to a particular muscle or muscles. but since its lower motor neuron it is affecting more diffusely. Like u need to take down only few Lumbo sacral neuron to get lower extremity weakness. but if it was sciatic or CFN (peri nerve) it would be specific & symptom include Sensory.