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Retired NBME Step 2 CK Form 7 Answers

step2ck_form7/Block 1/Question#17 (reveal difficulty score)
An 18-year-old woman comes to the physician ...
Splenectomy ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
tags: hemeonc

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submitted by โˆ—step_prep5(246)
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  • Young woman with a family history of anemia presents with jaundice, splenomegaly and anemia with normal reticulocyte count, negative Coombs test and elevated mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration with a peripheral smear showing spherocytes (RBCs without area of central pallor), most consistent with hereditary spherocytosis
  • Key idea: Hereditary spherocytosis is primarily transmitted in an autosomal dominant fashion and is treated with splenectomy (because the hemolysis occurs in the spleen because the splenic macrophages recognize the spherocytes as being misshapen)

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submitted by jaypat(7)
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Hereditary Spherocytosis โ€“ spleen removes spherocytes (anemia). Fragile RBCs are hemolyzed (jaundice).

  • *Elevated MCHC = Hereditary Spherocytosis
  • Peripheral smear โ€“ย round RBCs, no central pallor
  • Splenectomy is curative
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submitted by imtheman(2)
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Why wouldn't a bone morrow transplant prevent this? Technically not wrong...?

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