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Retired NBME Step 2 CK Form 7 Answers

step2ck_form7/Block 3/Question#19 (reveal difficulty score)
A 37-year-old woman comes to the physician ...
Bromocriptine therapy ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
tags: endo inc

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submitted by โˆ—yotsubato(1208)
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Transsphenoidal surgery should be considered when:

โ—Dopamine agonist treatment has been unsuccessful in lowering the serum prolactin concentration or size of the adenoma, and symptoms or signs due to hyperprolactinemia or adenoma size persist after several months of treatment at high doses.

โ—A woman has a giant lactotroph adenoma (eg, >3 cm) and wishes to become pregnant even if the adenoma responds to a dopamine agonist. The rationale for this approach is that if the patient becomes pregnant and discontinues the agonist for the duration of pregnancy, the adenoma may increase to a clinically important size before delivery.

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sw18  I thought prolactinomas usually have prolactin >200ng/ml? Her prolactin is only 40ng/ml, which made me think non-functional pituitary adenoma and pick transsphenoidal resection. +3



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submitted by โˆ—step_prep5(246)
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  • Young woman with irregular menses, galactorrhea, bitemporal hemianopsia found to have elevated prolactin and a pituitary microadenoma, most consistent with a prolactinoma
  • Key idea: Prolactin release from the anterior pituitary is inhibited by endogenous dopamine release from the hypothalamus, so we give patients with a prolactinoma dopamine agonists (bromocriptine, cabergoline) to inhibit prolactin release
  • Key idea: Patients with a macroprolactinoma (>10 mm) or symptomatic microprolactinoma should be started on dopamine agonists and should get a resection if the tumor is very large (>3 cm) or if the mass increases in size while on a dopamine agonist

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