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Retired NBME Step 2 CK Free 120 Answers

step2ck_free120/Block 2/Question#48 (reveal difficulty score)
A 27-year-old primigravid woman at 21 weeks’ ...
Influenza A virus 🔍 / 📺 / 🌳 / 📖
tags: infectious_disease

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submitted by bwdc(697)
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They are presumably trying to demonstrate that she has an acute viral-type syndrome given the flu-like illness with fever, muscle aches, and generalized misery. COVID-19 wasn’t an answer choice. Note the CXR says “interstitial infiltrates,” which is the Step code phrase for atypical infection (as opposed to consolidative pneumonia).

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lsmarshall  An odd question. If it was influenza pneumonia is classically described as bilateral diffuse interstitial infiltrates. Even Dorian anki deck has a flashcard on it. Looking at pubmed, there are articles supporting viral pneumonia being classically bilateral (here is one https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK513286/). Not sure why NBME insists on putting in random irregular details like that. Good explanation tho +



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