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Retired NBME 17 Answers

 +5  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—bingcentipede(359)
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Although they had statistical significance with a p=0.001, it doesn't matter to the subjects. They're only falling asleep 5 minutes faster, and are personally not reporting an improvement in quality of life. So, clinically, this medication doesn't matter to the subjects because 5 minutes faster might not be that big of a deal.

It's not attrition bias because the threshold there is 5%. Here, 20/2000 subjects (1%) are lost, having little effect on attrition. Additionally, the acceptable range for bias is between 5-20%, which this doesn't approach. https://catalogofbias.org/biases/attrition-bias/

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topgunber  The study has statistical significance. The study has no clinical significance because a) no improvement in QOL and b) 5 minutes faster than people with insomnia. +1
pemphigus07  excellent explanation +



 +4  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—kstebbins(24)
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All I can contribute is: you always include everyone in the analysis even if they are not adherent

This is because clinical research follows intention-to-treat protocol

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kstebbins  So my best guess is that because they excluded patients, their results are no longer clinically significant despite being statistically significant (p = 0.001) +8



 +3  upvote downvote
submitted by kding247(3)
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Dr. Jason Ryan from BB emphasized that just because something is statistically significant, does not automatically mean it is clinically significant!

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topgunber  god bless Dr. Jason Ryan. just about every teacher in med school has said the same. shame nobody gives them a chance +



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