This is Neurofibromatosis Type I, which is an autosomal dominant disease (FA2020 p60, 525)
Even if you did not know this fact, you could likely guess autosomal dominant based on the inheritance pattern and general disease described. It is VERY COMMON in the family on one side (the mothers) and it did not skip a generation. Autosomal recessive skips generations. Mitochondrial with variable penetrance could be possible, but the disease pattern for mitochondrial are myopathies, metabolic, or optic neuropathy. X-linked would have ALL of the sons of the mother affected (whether it was dominant or recessive).
abkapoorX-linked dominant may not have all of the sons of the mother affected if she gives her other x chromosome (unaffected chromosome). It is technically possible for this disease to follow x-linked dominant inheritance. The question just requires you to assume this is NF1 +4
jdc_mdif it was X-dominant not all of the sons would have it because the mom could/would most likely be Xx genotype. If the inheritance was x-recessive and the mother possessed the phenotype then all of the sons would be affected +
abkapoorIts theoretically possible for it to be X-linked dominant. Its just unlikely. +
submitted by โcassdawg(1780)
This is Neurofibromatosis Type I, which is an autosomal dominant disease (FA2020 p60, 525)
Even if you did not know this fact, you could likely guess autosomal dominant based on the inheritance pattern and general disease described. It is VERY COMMON in the family on one side (the mothers) and it did not skip a generation. Autosomal recessive skips generations. Mitochondrial with variable penetrance could be possible, but the disease pattern for mitochondrial are myopathies, metabolic, or optic neuropathy. X-linked would have ALL of the sons of the mother affected (whether it was dominant or recessive).