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Retired NBME 20 Answers

nbme20/Block 1/Question#47 (reveal difficulty score)
A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes ...
Rupture of a papillary muscle ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
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submitted by โˆ—hayayah(1212)
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The two most important MI complications that occur within a 2-5 day span are papillary muscle rupture and interventricular septum ruture.

Papillary muscle rupture leads to severe mitral regurgitation, heard as a systolic murmur at the apex.

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dulxy071  I disagree. any sort of rupture is usually the result of the action of macrophages (to eat away dead, necrotic tissue) which come in on day 3. This was merely a word game to get the time line right. They said "TWO DAYS LATER" (keeping in mind our time line starts 16 hours after the first symptoms appeared in this stem) which actually turns out to be day 3 +6
leaf_house  Wouldn't necrosis of the interventricular septum create a VSD, which would also produce a loud, (holo)systolic apical murmur? I don't get how we're supposed to differentiate, here. +1
mangotango  A VSD produces a holosytolic, harsh-sounding murmur loudest at the tricuspid area, not the mitral (apex) area -- FA, pg. 288, 289. +5



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submitted by โˆ—queenofhearts(18)
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This patient has some characteristics of myocardial infarction including a sudden onset of severe โ€œcrushingโ€ substernal chest pain that radiates to the left arm, shortness of breath, and jugular venous distention (JVD). Complications of myocardial infarction include cardiac rupture which is seen in this patient. The effects vary with the site of rupture; from the patientโ€™s mitral insufficiency {i.e. systolic murmur at the apex} we can see that this is a rupture at the papillary muscle.

Resource Kaplan Pathology Page 94-95

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