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Retired NBME 16 Answers

nbme16/Block 1/Question#3 (reveal difficulty score)
A 38-year-old woman comes to the physician ...
Serum calcium concentration ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
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 +3  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—medninja(21)
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MEN 1--> Pituitary tumors, pancreatic endocrine tumors (zollinger ellison or gastrinoma) and parathyroid adenomas.

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nbmeanswersownersucks  the question hints at a possible parathyroid adenoma with her history of 2 episodes of renal calculi. +5
feochromocytoma  Yup, also as a tip for next time, if you see that a patient has some sort of pancreatic cell tumor, such as Zollinger in this case, look for other MEN 1 associated findings. +1
cheesetouch  FA18 347 +1
l0ud_minority  Kidney stones is important so look at calcium levels. +



 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by rina(13)
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why isn't it serum cortisol concentration though. Couldn't that help you identify a pituitary adenoma (i.e. because increased ACTH --> increased cortisol concentration)?

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rina  is it because she's showing no symptoms or something? +
jj375  I'm not sure but I would assume you would want to first confirm that her symptoms are from a gastrinoma (pancreatic endocrine tumor) and a parathyroid adenoma to confirm MEN1 before you would go and then try to preventatively check for a pituitary tumor even without symptoms. So I would guess it is just about what takes priority, focus on the things with the symptoms to confirmt he diagnosis +1
unknown001  if the option included serum prolactin, then i would consider pituitary in the evaluation, because usmle is all about most common. having said that, the next best is calcium assesment +



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