to snoo-finity ... and beyond!
Welcome to fcambridge's page.
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I think it’s because meningiomas are able to calcify (aka sometimes they have psamomma bodies). I got this question wrong too but I totally did not completely register that the tumor was in the dura (interhemispheric fissure + central sulcus). Hope that helps!
the only reason I got this right was because they described the tumour as being near the falx cerebri.
Other hints include being described as round and seen in a female. Both indicative of Meningioma
also meningiomas typically present with seizures or focal neurological signs
ALK is increased in bone breakdown too. Prostate loves spreading to the lumbar Spine. It's like crack-cocaine for cancer.
I think the "Worse at night" lends itself more towards mets, and the pt demographics lean towards prostate cancer, which loves to go to the lumbar spine via the Batson plexus. I picked Paget but i think they would have given something more telling if they wanted pagets, histology or another clue
@seagull and aesalmon, I think you're a bit off here. Prostate mets would be osteoblastic, not osteolytic as is described in the vignette.
Yeah I chose Paget's too bcz I figured if it wasn't prostate cancer (which as @fcambridge said would present w/ osteoblastic lesions) they would give us another presenting sx of the metastatic cancer (lung, renal, skin) that might point us in that direction. I got distracted by the increased ALP too and fell for Paget :(
@fcambridge, not exactly. Yes, prostate mets tends to be osteoblastic, but about 30% are found to be lytic, per this study: https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/pmc/articles/PMC2768452/ Additionally, the night bone pains point to mets, and Paget's is much more commonly found in the cranial bones and appendicular skeleton, than axial. This could also be RCC mets!
I mainly ruled out pagets because they said the physical examination was normal. He would def have other symptoms.
From what I remember from Pathoma:
Metastasis to bone is usually osteolytic with exception to prostate, which is osteoblastic.
Therefore, stem says NUMEROUS lytic lesions and sounds more like metastasis.
I had a similar thought regarding mesangial hypercellularity. I missed a UW question on a similar topic. Unilateral renal artery stenosis results in hyperplasia of modified smooth muscle cells (JG cells) due to reduced RBF. The hyperplasia is intended to correct the supposed deficiency via increased production of renin.
I agree, I picked H1 because such a common complaint for those on TCAs is Sedation, I figure it might be so commonly seen as to be the "most common" reason for noncompliance. I suppose the "hot as a hare...etc" effects would be more severe/annoying, but I didn't think they were more common.
I just like to pretend that there's a reason this question is now in an NBME and no longer being used for the test. Hopefully they realized the idiocy of this question like we all do
Since it said cyclic, I thought of using, discontinuing, then using again. These people who write these questions need take some English writing courses so they can write with CLARITY. Cyclic is not the same as Tricyclic.
How is Tuberous Sclerosis the most likely given that it is an AD disorder and there is no family history of "seizure disorder or major medical illnesses"?
@fcambridge variable expressivity of TSC allows for many different phenotypes.