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NBME 22 Answers

nbme22/Block 4/Question#22
A 37-year-old man comes to the physician for ...
Hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis🔍

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Severe hypertension often leads to hyperplastic arteriolosclerosis (onion-skin appearance). Also see proliferation of smooth muscle cells.

meningitis  and explains the flame hemorrhages (Goljan) caused by malignant HTN +4  
taediggity  FA 2020 pg. 537 +  
dentist  FA 2020 pg 301* +  
ally123  The flame hemmorhages are also a good buzz word for recognizing he has hypertensive retinopathy 2e chronic, uncontrolled HTN. Pt's with hypertensive retinopathy can also present with "cotton wool spots" and "macular star". Pics on FA 2019, p. 299 +  



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submitted by peridot(2),

While I understand why it's hyperplastic arteriosclerosis and how it classically occurs with HTN, I was wondering why it couldn't be berry aneurysm? Is it because the question is asking which is "most likely", making C the better answer? Thank you.

mannan  Berry Aneurysm is not CAUSED by HTN. It's caused by weakening of the arterial wall (at bifurcations). Hypertensive disease exacerbates them and causes the clinical picture of SAH (worst headache of life) when they rupture. Hope that helps -- Reference: FA CNS pathology, aneurysms. +  



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