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yex
Nice! ...and we are supposed to read the stem and do all this in a minute or so? :-/
+28
charcot_bouchard
Allele frequency 1/40. so carrier freq 1/20. 80% of 1/20 is 1/25 (80/100 x 1/20)
+15
hello_planet
A handy shortcut for Hardy-Weinberg is that you generally can assume p ~= 1 if q if fairly low. It also tends to be easier to work in fractions if the answer choices are in fractions so you don't have to bounce back and forth between fractions and decimals.
So with that, you send up with 2pq = 2 * 1 * 1/50 = 2/50 = 1/25.
+9
topgunber
hate this whole scramble thing:
In one line: 2 * q * 80%.
This is for diseased individuals (two q alleles).I = 1/1600 = q^2
The frequency of q = 1/40
Now carriers is 2 p q. P is close to one assuming HW eqm (p+q=1). There's an additional step in this question due to the two different mutations.
so 2(q) = 1/20. 80% of these carriers are deletions so multiply 1/20 * 0.8 = 1/25
+
@usmlecrasher
1/40 = .025 = q
P + q = 1 -> P + .025 = 1 -> P= 0.975
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thechillhill
So apparently I don't know how to format very well. Sorry!
+1
pakimd
So because i couldnt spend more than a minute on this question and honestly didnt recall the Hardy-Weinberg equation this is how i solved it under a minute:
so you know in a given population half of them will be carriers since its an autosomal recessive disease Aa Aa= AA aa Aa Aa
so of that half 80% are due to deletion mutations and 20% are due point mutations
by that logic 80% of half into 20% of half will give you 1/25
+1
topgunber
hate this whole scramble thing:
In one line: 2 * q * 80%.
This is for diseased individuals (two q alleles).I = 1/1600 = q^2
The frequency of q = 1/40
Now carriers is 2 p q. P is close to one assuming HW eqm (p+q=1). There's an additional step in this question due to the two different mutations.
so 2(q) = 1/20. 80% of these carriers are deletions so multiply 1/20 * 0.8 = 1/25
+
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submitted by jotajota94(14)
Use the Hardy-Weinberg equation