NBME 23 Answers : Block 4 : #2 = A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus ...

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NBME Answers & Explanations

NBME 23 Answers

nbme23/Block 4/Question#2

A 60-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes mellitus ...

Subacromial bursitis

+1 upvote downvote
submitted by docred123(3),

Why is the answer to this question not Adhesivie Capsultiis...

hayayah Adhesive capsulitis causes severe restriction of both active and passive range of movement of the glenohumeral joint in all planes (especially external rotation). +4

catch-22 Adhesive capsulitis is aka "frozen shouder" so you can expect exactly that. The entire shoulder will be hard to move in all directions. +1

meningitis Since it says there is NO impingement sign, it cant be rotator cuff tendinitis correct? What other signs eliminate this option? +

+1 upvote downvote
submitted by doomarion(1),

Subacromial bursitis = Nocturnal Exacerbation of pain, pain overhead, pain between deltoid and AC joint

No impingement = not rotator cuff tendinitis

Like Hayayah said "adhesive capsulitis causes severe restriction of both active and passive range of movement of the glenohumeral joint in all planes "

+0 upvote downvote
submitted by d_holles(32),

https://www.amboss.com/us/knowledge/Soft_tissue_lesions_of_the_shoulder

yex There is a Q on UWorld about rotator cuff tendinitis #380186 w/ a similar presentation... I kind of remembered about that, but honestly I do not know how I got it right. +

yex Correction: Q id is # 1732 +

+0 upvote downvote
submitted by hello(59),

Why are "rotator cuff tear" and "rotator cuff tendnitis" wrong? is it bc both of these would show impingement sign? is there a way to DDx one from the other?