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NBME 22 Answers

nbme22/Block 1/Question#17 (47.8 difficulty score)
A 27-year-old man is brought to the emergency ...

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submitted by seagull(1366),
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iergFu 2. uahthlog furige 1 lkoos ncgyiklhos iimrlas

drbravojose  genius +1  
alimd  there is no way to distinguish b/n eversion and inversion based on step1 knowledge +1  

submitted by dentist(48),

Pott's Fracture: forced eversion of the foot➝ deltoid ligt avulses medial malleolus ➝ fibular fracture higher than tib fx

submitted by _pusheen_(6),
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Hwo anc oyu tell atth hte eanlk rratfuec is nve?osrie

lnsetick  Because there is avulsion fracture on medial side from deltoid ligament and fibular fracture on oppostie side, this is classic for an eversion. +3  
alimd  Its more a CK-type question +  

submitted by abhishek021196(47),

A better way to visualize this is the two hands of a clock, with one hand facing 12 and the other facing 6. The vertical line they form represents the fibula of the person's right leg. The lateral force approaches from 3 o'clock, sending the lower hand snapping outwards to point at 5 o'clock.

Pott's fracture, also known as Pott's syndrome I and Dupuytren fracture, is an archaic term loosely applied to a variety of bimalleolar ankle fractures.[1] The injury is caused by a combined abduction external rotation from an eversion force. This action strains the sturdy medial (deltoid) ligament of the ankle, often tearing off the medial malleolus due to its strong attachment. The talus then moves laterally, shearing off the lateral malleolus or, more commonly, breaking the fibula superior to the tibiofibular syndesmosis.