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Retired NBME 23 Answers

nbme23/Block 4/Question#6 (reveal difficulty score)
A 35-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, ...
External anal sphincter ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
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 +8  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—aneurysmclip(209)
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what I'm thinking is, normally the perineal body is cut during a posterior episiotomy. so reading over the question again, the last line "which is at greatest risk for damage IF this incision is TORN FURTHER during delivery" Torn further being the key imo.

as for why it isn't bulbospongiosus or ischocavernosis -> https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Transverse_perineal_muscles#/media/File:1116_Muscle_of_the_Female_Perineum.png

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cbreland  why do I feel like this was supposed to be an easy question +1



 +8  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—drschmoctor(137)
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To remember the 4 degrees of perineal tears, you have to remember that.... when giving birth, vaginal tears are PAR for the course.

  • Vagina
  • Perineum
  • Anal sphincter
  • Rectum
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 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—bigjimbo(67)
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Episiotomy is cut from vagina to the perineal body for child birth

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btl_nyc  But why is it external anal sphincter instead of bulbospongiosus? Aren't both attached to perineal body? +2
stinkysulfaeggs  Bulbospongiosus connects to either side of the perineal body. But if you go directly posterior rom the commissure you hit the anal sphincter +15
need_answers  I just think about how women say they done ripped their asshole while giving birth +4



 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by paloma(10)
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This might help

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ineedhelpwitmed  It didnt +2



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