Does anyone have a good explanation for why decreased levels of inhibin is wrong? From my understanding, inhibin and activin work together, in that inhibin binds and blocks activin leading to decreased feedback on hypothalamus and activin increases FSH and GnRH production.. thus, if you decrease inhibin then you would have increased activin which would lead to increased GnRH and FSH, right? I found one article talking about it in regards to puberty, but it seems to be a hypothesis/not confirmed at this point... is that why? But still... how do I rule it out on a test?
Is this found in other resources other then Pub med articles?
Pulsatile pituitary pulses peripherally provide production perpetually... pulsatile
submitted by โlsmarshall(465)
"In the years preceding physical puberty, Robert M. Boyar discovered that the gonadotropin pulses occur only during sleep, but as puberty progresses they can be detected during the day. By the end of puberty, there is little day-night difference in the amplitude and frequency of gonadotropin pulses.
Some investigators have attributed the onset of puberty to a resonance of oscillators in the brain.[89][90][91] By this mechanism, the gonadotropin pulses that occur primarily at night just before puberty represent beats." - Wiki