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Contributor score: 57
Comments ...
rkd
BNB video on mechanical ventilation is too good.
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drmohandes
Already did CXR and saw air in abdomen. That is not a good sign, likely something perforated. Emergency surgery for this dude.
+1
drmohandes
Also he's not that stable (100 F, low BP, tachycardic, leukocytosis) with rigid abdomen, pain, acute distress, etc.
+2
lubdub
Agreed. I him-hawed about it, but figured the free air should tell us what to do.
+1
jlbae
also has Korsakoff syndrome (evidenced by the confabulations)
+3
lilmonkey
In mother Russia, we call it the Middle Age Crisis. :)
+1
lubdub
I think the homemade whisky is supposed to tip us off that he's got some goofy exposure.
+3
ronabobonafofona
This tripped me up too. I was thinking intermittent SBO due to the prior surgeries. Guess we just gotta remember to go for "what's most common in young woman with alternating diarrhea/constipation" which would be IBS unless they're making some statement that makes something else very obvious.
+1
Subcomments ...
derpymd
Uworld says the most common cause is nontypeable H. flu, S. pneumo next, followed by Moraxella. That said, nontypeable H. flu wasn't an answer
+2
tinylilron
Per AMBOSS: "S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae account for โผ75% of cases, then M. catarrhalis. Staphylococci and gram-negative organisms predominate in chronic sinusitis."
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bigjimbo
no thoracotomy because thats for unstable lung injuries like persistent hemothorax. The question is tricky because it says SOB and ABDOMINAL pain. paired with the green fluid (boerhaave or pancreatic), laparotomy is a safer answer
+1
beans123
I looked it up and it truly depends on where the rupture is... thoracotomy could very well be the answer for a higher up rupture even if the patient is unstable...
+1
kalam
The answer is not because of lifestyle modifications being the next step, but mostly because the diagnosis of hypertension requires multiple things: in-office HTN + having patient take blood pressure at home periodically and then follow up in the office.
The only time an isolated single time of high blood pressure can immediately be diagnostic of hypertension is BP >180/>120 (urgency or emergency, OR >160/>100 + evidence of end organ damage.
+5
tinylilron
I feel like we do re-evaluation in 3 months... or is 1 month the new guidelines?
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danielle359x
In case anyone didn't know, the "generalized itching" is uremic pruritis 2/2 kidney failure. This threw me off for a second since my mind automatically jumped to elevated bili
+12
tinylilron
You can also do the BUN/Creatinine ratio to rule out a Pre-renal etiology which isn't an answer choice (lol)... his most recent BUN/Creatinine ratio is 13.88 which is <15:1 so its less likely to be Prerenal AKI
+1
tinylilron
Bupropion= anti-depressant; Buspirone= treatment for General Anxiety Disorder
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lindasmith462
I mean it was def the only decent answer but its also third line at best in adolescents - especially one who isnt sleeping well....
its specifically approved in peds for depression refractory to SSRIs
+1
charcot_bouchard
OMG IKR! This one was such a BS> like i know that Bupropion is not first line in paed. Also that line HE IS CONVINCED he is worthless and useless....like hinting some sort of delusion (depression + psychosis). Chose resperisone...later changed to bupropion because even in depression plus psychosis u need to treat depression first plus antipsych
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adong
worthlessness isn't delusion tho...that's just depression
+1
drmohandes
Then why is this guy not getting the pneumococcal vaccine (62 year old smoker)?
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tinylilron
Pneumococcal vaccination is not given annually
+7
osler_weber_rendu
"1.5 cm palpable mass". Fissure will be described as an erosion in a patient with chronic constipation.
+2
tinylilron
Why is high-risk sexual activity a risk factor?
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stinkysulfaeggs
Also they use condoms and she takes an OCP. That's not high risk sexual behavior.
+1
jmorga75
She's probably kissing her sex partners before getting freaky... โ EBV
(plus the characteristic LAD and labs that point toward EBV).
Also, HSV2 is the sexually transmitted one, and that tends to cause inguinal LAD, not cervical.
+1
ashishsuthar
is 44% lymphocyte elevated?? also bilateral posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more specific for EBV infectious mononucleosis. moreover, she does not have splenomegaly. Maybe all patients do not have splenomegaly at presentation but still this is confusing.
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tinylilron
Wouldn't you expect tachycardia with a pheochromocytoma???
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lilmonkey
In the NBME/USMLE world - pronounce tachycardia is more pathognomonic for hyperthyroidism. Here we have hyperthyroidism as the main distractor in answer choices so the authors decided to "make our choice a bit easier".
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beans123
also no tremor and the hair/skin appear normal
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szsnikaa
Brain abscesses are secondary to septic emboli via hematogenous spread. Edema often forms around these abscesses leading to a mass effect (+ Babinski & Mild Hemiparesis on the left).
+10
kingfriday
Guy has a valve replacement -> he then has a new murmur, fever, and FND - he probably has endocarditis due to staph epidermidis.
Carotid artery occlusion wouldn't cause more issues (i think vision in particular would be included) in addition to more severe deficits. There would also be no fever.
Venous sinus thrombosis would also not present with fever and also probably include vision problems
Encephalitis would probably present with AMS and seizures - may or may not be nuchal rigidity
Hydrocephalus: wet wacky wobbly- not seen here
+5
tinylilron
So the brain abscess would be due to staph epidermis rather than strep pyogenes, right?
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notyasupreme
^^ yeah, pretty sure I read on Anki that it's usually S aureus initially that commonly causes it, then becomes epidermitis
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tinylilron
Where can I find this information? I have not had my ICU rotation yet. I see in First Aid Step 2CK there is some information in the Pulmonary chapter but it is a long list and what is the high yield to remember?
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charcot_bouchard
Initial criteria for extubation readiness include -
pH >7.25
Adequate oxygenation on minimal support (i.e FiO2 <40% and PEEP <5cm H2O)
Intact inspiratory effort and sufficient mental alertness to protect the airway.
Those who meet the criteria should undergo spontaneous breathing trial (Turn off ventilatory function while intubated).
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tinylilron
I was explaining his symptoms with his alcohol-use disorder but everything you said makes sense
+2
tinylilron
no more likely to be bilateral but can be unilateral... if unilateral it is more likely to present on the right side.
+1
jlbae
IIRC pulmonary edema is bilateral but effusion can be either unilateral or bilateral
+2
jda2674
Pleural effusions are commonly seen in patients with congestive heart failure. They are usually bilateral or right sided and are rarely left sided. An important step in the evaluation of any pleural effusion is the classification of the fluid into a transudate or an exudate.
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tinylilron
Isn't possible for folic acid deficiency and suppression of bone marrow by alcohol to be potential causes of the patient's decreased leukocyte count?
+1
keyseph
Folic acid deficiency would not explain the disproportionate decrease in neutrophils. Yes, this is leukopenia, but more specifically, this is agranulocytosis, which is a side effect of carbamazepine.
+3
keyseph
Persistent pain from AOM with displaced ear and postauricular pain suggests mastoiditis, which is evaluated with a head CT.
+1
welpdedelp
Risperidone is also injectable though
Injectables:
Haloperidol decanoate
Fluphenazine decanoate
Flupenthixol decanoate
Zuclopenthixol decanoate
Aripiprazole monohydrate
Olanzapine pamoate
Paliperidone palmitate
Risperidone
+2
welpdedelp
I think there was another reason since there were 3 injectables among the answer choices
+1
welpdedelp
As a correction I see what you mean, its the only LONG acting, sorry
+2
tinylilron
does the decanoate make it a long-acting medication?
+2
jlbae
frequency of injections - haloperidol decanoate = 28 days, fluphenazine decanoate = 21 days, risperidone LAI = 14 days
+3
lindasmith462
oh sorry I didn't realize I was taking a PHARMACY school exam. my bad. like seriously what tf were they even testing with this question?
+10
tinylilron
This one confused me because I would also make sure she was vaccinated for all of these except Strep pyogenes (because I don't think that vaccination exists). Although, maybe you are correct, "health maintenance regimen" is the key phrase.
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happyyoyo
she has allergic contact dermatitis which is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. Urticaria is a type 1 hypersensitivity
+1
tinylilron
First Aid Step 2 CK says that Latex allergy is NOT a contact dermatitis--its a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction
+7
lilmonkey
Her boyfriend should be informed as well to prevent further and deeper complications.
+3
305charlie94
First Aid 9th edition Step 2 CK stated that Latex is a type I HSR, however the newer 10th edition now mentions latex allergy as a type IV contact dermatitis
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nayyyy
Anion gap metabolic acidosis
+2
ronabobonafofona
I also thought this. But I knew for sure that Pulmonary artery pressure would go up, so I just went with what I was sure of.
+1
lubdub
HR's fast. 100 bpm.. No time for filling there! The lack of filling time contributes to the pathology.
+2
jlbae
If I had the power to, I would dub lubdub the resident cardiologist of this forum.
+4
tinylilron
I was thinking about her palpitations. I wonder if that could be caused by her hyperthyroid state before her hypothyroid state.
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tinylilron
I would think that SIADH can occur with ANY lung pathology. Thus making any of these etiologies plausible. However, First Aid Step 2 CK mentions that SIASH is present with small cell carcinoma. Therefore, I suppose small cell carcinoma has a greater association with SIADH.
+1
spiroskeet
Reason for pH >4.5 is that Gardnerella outcompete Lactobacilli fauna, which (as their name implies) pump out acid
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tinylilron
seriously green discharge vs. gray discharge? :-/
+2
tinylilron
I am confused as well. Is it because of the rapid nature of memory loss?
+1
shastri96
Presbycusis
presbyopia
diminished ankle reflex
Old age related tremor
all are common old age conditions so they dont require urgent evaluation.
+10
nayyyy
Also that she felt well and was not concerned about it? Maybe.. lol
+2
lubdub
And the memory loss is leading to danger- leaving the stove on. Gotta get that in check.
+2
lindasmith462
the most specific sx for dementia is impaired functioning in ADLs - getting lost in familiar surroundings is a SUPER common one. (lol I've def accidently left the stove on during step studying - stupid electric stoves)
+1
whoopthereitis
I remember a UWorld question describing how loss of DTR at the ankles, aka Achilles reflex bilaterally, is a normal finding with aging--guessing the same logic for most of the rest
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tinylilron
Are the hiccups related to his SIADH?
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wutuwantbruv
@tinylilron Most likely due to the mass itself as it is in the hilar region and therefore more central and able to compress the phrenic nerve as it passes down through the mediastinum.
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wutuwantbruv
Also as a note, 3% saline is used for severe HYPOvolemic and EUvolemic hyponatremia. NS is used for HYPERvolemic hyponatremia.
+1
sassy_vulpix
As per UWorld :
Adults : Centor Criteria : 0-1 : viral,No test reqd; 2-3 : RSAT, if positive antibiotics, if negative, we assume it to be viral so nothing; 4 : penicillin/amoxiciliin
whereas for kids, we always need to follow up a negative RSAT with a throat culture. In adults, there is no need.
+1
machetebetty
She doesn't meet criteria for empiric treatment (4 or 5 points); if she had, they wouldn't have performed the RST. She has 3 points- age, temp, no cough. Also, helpful for remembering (not mine but I don't remember where I got this) -
Cough [trick is remembering, lack thereof]
Exudates
Nodes
Temp
Old
r [or, "RST if 2-3"]
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tinylilron
Is sodium not affected (140) because aldosterone is able to compensate? For some reason, I thought that one could lose sodium with intractable vomiting too?
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tinylilron
I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/
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tinylilron
I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ Also, is the baby not demonstrating esophageal symptoms because he is only fed formula at this time?
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tinylilron
I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/
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tinylilron
I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ Also, is the baby not demonstrating esophageal symptoms because he is only fed formula at this time?
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tinylilron
why couldn't it be a Coarctation of the aorta?
+1
jlbae
Coarctation would not give a widened pulse pressure. It would present as high BPs in the upper extremities and low BPs in the lower extremities. Also the murmur would be systolic. This "to-and-fro" murmur is synonymous with a continuous โmachine-like", which is present in both systole and diastole.
+2
Where can I find this information? I have not had my ICU rotation yet. I see in First Aid Step 2CK there is some information in the Pulmonary chapter but it is a long list and what is the high yield to remember? What is a good, fast, easy to understand source that I can use?