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Welcome to tinylilronโ€™s page.
Contributor score: 57


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 +0  visit this page (step2ck_form6#27)
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Where can I find this information? I have not had my ICU rotation yet. I see in First Aid Step 2CK there is some information in the Pulmonary chapter but it is a long list and what is the high yield to remember? What is a good, fast, easy to understand source that I can use?

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nayyyy  UWorld QID 16112 +4
rkd  BNB video on mechanical ventilation is too good. +

 +0  visit this page (step2ck_form6#3)
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Can anyone explain the correct answer for this one?

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 +1  visit this page (step2ck_form6#5)
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The patient is relatively stable? Couldn't we do an abdominal CT scan before we do the laparotomy?

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drmohandes  Already did CXR and saw air in abdomen. That is not a good sign, likely something perforated. Emergency surgery for this dude. +1
drmohandes  Also he's not that stable (100 F, low BP, tachycardic, leukocytosis) with rigid abdomen, pain, acute distress, etc. +2
lubdub  Agreed. I him-hawed about it, but figured the free air should tell us what to do. +1

 -1  visit this page (step2ck_form6#7)
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Is it just me, or is this question phrased strangely?

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 +2  visit this page (step2ck_form6#34)
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Wernicke syndrome presents in patients with alcoholism thought to be due to Vitamin B1 deficiency

Classic Triad= confusion+ opthalmoplegia + ataxia

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jlbae  also has Korsakoff syndrome (evidenced by the confabulations) +3
lilmonkey  In mother Russia, we call it the Middle Age Crisis. :) +1

 +0  visit this page (step2ck_form6#45)
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Does anyone have any ideas for this one???

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lubdub  I think the homemade whisky is supposed to tip us off that he's got some goofy exposure. +3

 +1  visit this page (step2ck_form6#35)
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The foul-smelling stools tripped me up. I chose Crohn's disease but I suppose that you would expect to see more systemic symptoms with Crohn's (ie. weight loss and fever)???

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ronabobonafofona  This tripped me up too. I was thinking intermittent SBO due to the prior surgeries. Guess we just gotta remember to go for "what's most common in young woman with alternating diarrhea/constipation" which would be IBS unless they're making some statement that makes something else very obvious. +1




Subcomments ...

submitted by bwdc(697), visit this page
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Consider bacterial sinusitis to be analogous to bacterial pneumonia. All are possible, but Strep pneumo is the most common.

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derpymd  Uworld says the most common cause is nontypeable H. flu, S. pneumo next, followed by Moraxella. That said, nontypeable H. flu wasn't an answer +2
tinylilron  Per AMBOSS: "S. pneumoniae and H. influenzae account for โˆผ75% of cases, then M. catarrhalis. Staphylococci and gram-negative organisms predominate in chronic sinusitis." +


submitted by bwdc(697), visit this page
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Unstable and hypotensive patients after blunt trauma get laparotomies (donโ€™t put an unstable patient in the CT scanner). In addition to saline and blood products, definitive surgery is how you address the C in ABC.

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tinylilron  Why not a Thoracotomy??? +3
bigjimbo  no thoracotomy because thats for unstable lung injuries like persistent hemothorax. The question is tricky because it says SOB and ABDOMINAL pain. paired with the green fluid (boerhaave or pancreatic), laparotomy is a safer answer +1
beans123  I looked it up and it truly depends on where the rupture is... thoracotomy could very well be the answer for a higher up rupture even if the patient is unstable... +1


submitted by step_prep3(25), visit this page
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  • Middle-aged man found to have elevated blood pressure for the first time, and therefore should be initially managed with a trial of lifestyle modifications

https://step-prep.org/tutoring/

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kalam  The answer is not because of lifestyle modifications being the next step, but mostly because the diagnosis of hypertension requires multiple things: in-office HTN + having patient take blood pressure at home periodically and then follow up in the office. The only time an isolated single time of high blood pressure can immediately be diagnostic of hypertension is BP >180/>120 (urgency or emergency, OR >160/>100 + evidence of end organ damage. +5
tinylilron  I feel like we do re-evaluation in 3 months... or is 1 month the new guidelines? +


submitted by step_prep2(66), visit this page
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  • Older patient with BPH with signs of an AKI (creatinine increase of at least 0.3) who also has suprapubic distention/tenderness, consistent with post-renal AKI in setting of urinary retention
  • Diabetic nephropathy can lead to chronic kidney disease over time, but it wouldnโ€™t develop as quickly as seen in this patient

https://step-prep.org/tutoring/

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danielle359x  In case anyone didn't know, the "generalized itching" is uremic pruritis 2/2 kidney failure. This threw me off for a second since my mind automatically jumped to elevated bili +12
tinylilron  You can also do the BUN/Creatinine ratio to rule out a Pre-renal etiology which isn't an answer choice (lol)... his most recent BUN/Creatinine ratio is 13.88 which is <15:1 so its less likely to be Prerenal AKI +1


submitted by step_prep2(66), visit this page
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  • Patient with signs of major depressive disorder (too severe of a presentation for simple adjustment disorder), who should be treated with an anti-depressant, with Bupropion being the only antidepressant listed
  • First-line antidepressants: SSRIs, SNRIs, Bupropion, Mirtazapine
  • Benefits of bupropion: Mild stimulant effects, patient with comorbid cigarette use, helps patients with weight loss, favorable sexual side effect profile

https://step-prep.org/tutoring/

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tinylilron  Bupropion= anti-depressant; Buspirone= treatment for General Anxiety Disorder +
lindasmith462  I mean it was def the only decent answer but its also third line at best in adolescents - especially one who isnt sleeping well.... its specifically approved in peds for depression refractory to SSRIs +1
charcot_bouchard  OMG IKR! This one was such a BS> like i know that Bupropion is not first line in paed. Also that line HE IS CONVINCED he is worthless and useless....like hinting some sort of delusion (depression + psychosis). Chose resperisone...later changed to bupropion because even in depression plus psychosis u need to treat depression first plus antipsych +
adong  worthlessness isn't delusion tho...that's just depression +1


submitted by step_prep2(66), visit this page
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  • Key idea: All patients should receive an annual flu vaccine
  • Patients should get a Tdap vaccine as an adult and then a Td booster every 10 years
  • All patients should get pneumococcal vaccines (PCV13 + PPSV23) at age 65, with patients under 65 with relative immunodeficiency or increased risk getting a PPSV23 (chronic heart, lung or liver disease; diabetes; current smokers; alcoholics) and patients under 65 with very high risk getting PCV13 + PPSV23 (CSF leak, sickle cell disease, asplenia, cochlear implants, HIV, chronic kidney disease, organ transplant, etc.)

https://step-prep.org/tutoring/

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drmohandes  Then why is this guy not getting the pneumococcal vaccine (62 year old smoker)? +
tinylilron  Pneumococcal vaccination is not given annually +7


submitted by step_prep(148), visit this page
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  • Middle-aged man with HIV presents with progressive pain and difficulty with bowel movements with a DRE showing a palpable mass in the anal canal with central ulceration most consistent with a squamous cell carcinoma
  • Key idea: HPV-related squamous cell carcinomas of the cervix, anus and penis are more commonly seen in HIV patients, which is why female patients with HIV should receive annual pap smears (rather than every 3-5 years)

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tinylilron  why is anal fissure incorrect? +
osler_weber_rendu  "1.5 cm palpable mass". Fissure will be described as an erosion in a patient with chronic constipation. +2


submitted by step_prep(148), visit this page
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  • Young patient with high-risk sexual behaviors presents with acute fever, sore throat, fatigue, tender/enlarged cervical lymph nodes, increased lymphocytes, and mildly increased LFTs with a negative rapid strep test, most consistent with infectious mononucleosis, which is caused by EBV > CMV

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tinylilron  Why is high-risk sexual activity a risk factor? +
stinkysulfaeggs  Also they use condoms and she takes an OCP. That's not high risk sexual behavior. +1
jmorga75  She's probably kissing her sex partners before getting freaky... โ†’ EBV (plus the characteristic LAD and labs that point toward EBV). Also, HSV2 is the sexually transmitted one, and that tends to cause inguinal LAD, not cervical. +1
ashishsuthar  is 44% lymphocyte elevated?? also bilateral posterior cervical lymphadenopathy is more specific for EBV infectious mononucleosis. moreover, she does not have splenomegaly. Maybe all patients do not have splenomegaly at presentation but still this is confusing. +


submitted by step_prep2(66), visit this page
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  • Young otherwise healthy woman with episodic headaches, palpitations, and sweating found to have severely elevated blood pressure, most consistent with a pheochromocytoma (tumor of adrenal medulla leading to increased catecholamine production)
  • Key idea: Classically leads to episodes of the 5 Pโ€™s: elevated blood Pressure, Painful headache, Perspiration, Palpitations and Pallor

https://step-prep.org/tutoring/

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tinylilron  Wouldn't you expect tachycardia with a pheochromocytoma??? +
lilmonkey  In the NBME/USMLE world - pronounce tachycardia is more pathognomonic for hyperthyroidism. Here we have hyperthyroidism as the main distractor in answer choices so the authors decided to "make our choice a bit easier". +
beans123  also no tremor and the hair/skin appear normal +


submitted by saffronshawty(30), visit this page
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can someone please explain this answer :D

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szsnikaa  Brain abscesses are secondary to septic emboli via hematogenous spread. Edema often forms around these abscesses leading to a mass effect (+ Babinski & Mild Hemiparesis on the left). +10
kingfriday  Guy has a valve replacement -> he then has a new murmur, fever, and FND - he probably has endocarditis due to staph epidermidis. Carotid artery occlusion wouldn't cause more issues (i think vision in particular would be included) in addition to more severe deficits. There would also be no fever. Venous sinus thrombosis would also not present with fever and also probably include vision problems Encephalitis would probably present with AMS and seizures - may or may not be nuchal rigidity Hydrocephalus: wet wacky wobbly- not seen here +5
tinylilron  So the brain abscess would be due to staph epidermis rather than strep pyogenes, right? +
notyasupreme  ^^ yeah, pretty sure I read on Anki that it's usually S aureus initially that commonly causes it, then becomes epidermitis +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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Criteria for weaning from ventilator:

  1. O2 sat >= 90% with FiO2<=40% and PEEP<=8
  2. pH>7.25
  3. Initiating breaths (SIMV allows patient to initiate breaths)
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tinylilron  Where can I find this information? I have not had my ICU rotation yet. I see in First Aid Step 2CK there is some information in the Pulmonary chapter but it is a long list and what is the high yield to remember? +
charcot_bouchard  Initial criteria for extubation readiness include - pH >7.25 Adequate oxygenation on minimal support (i.e FiO2 <40% and PEEP <5cm H2O) Intact inspiratory effort and sufficient mental alertness to protect the airway. Those who meet the criteria should undergo spontaneous breathing trial (Turn off ventilatory function while intubated). +


submitted by shastri96(17), visit this page
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LEAD POISONING IN ADULTS: GI Symptoms: abd pain, constipation (acute) Neuro: Cognitive deficit, Peripheral neuropathy (chronic) Hematological: Anemia

this patient has Signs of chronic lead poisoning: nonspecific symptoms (eg fatigue, irritability, insomnia), HTN, motor and sensory deficits, cognitive defect.

So we check for elevated venous Lead levels and give chelation therapy.

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tinylilron  I was explaining his symptoms with his alcohol-use disorder but everything you said makes sense +2


submitted by bharatpillai(40), visit this page
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Aren't Pl effusions due to CHF ALWAYS bilteral??

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tinylilron  no more likely to be bilateral but can be unilateral... if unilateral it is more likely to present on the right side. +1
jlbae  IIRC pulmonary edema is bilateral but effusion can be either unilateral or bilateral +2
jda2674  Pleural effusions are commonly seen in patients with congestive heart failure. They are usually bilateral or right sided and are rarely left sided. An important step in the evaluation of any pleural effusion is the classification of the fluid into a transudate or an exudate. +


submitted by carolebaskin(109), visit this page
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Don't forget your sketchy!

carbamazapine is the anti-epileptic associated with blood dyscrasias, such as aplastic anemia and agranulocytosis

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tinylilron  Isn't possible for folic acid deficiency and suppression of bone marrow by alcohol to be potential causes of the patient's decreased leukocyte count? +1
keyseph  Folic acid deficiency would not explain the disproportionate decrease in neutrophils. Yes, this is leukopenia, but more specifically, this is agranulocytosis, which is a side effect of carbamazepine. +3


submitted by medgirl11(20), visit this page
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Amoxicillin course has not resolved pain + down/lateral displacement of auricle = abscess symptoms... use CT to visualize

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tinylilron  I was thinking mastoiditis +3
keyseph  Persistent pain from AOM with displaced ear and postauricular pain suggests mastoiditis, which is evaluated with a head CT. +1


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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Schizophrenic patients with medication non-compliance need long-acting injectable formulations

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welpdedelp  Risperidone is also injectable though Injectables: Haloperidol decanoate Fluphenazine decanoate Flupenthixol decanoate Zuclopenthixol decanoate Aripiprazole monohydrate Olanzapine pamoate Paliperidone palmitate Risperidone +2
welpdedelp  I think there was another reason since there were 3 injectables among the answer choices +1
welpdedelp  As a correction I see what you mean, its the only LONG acting, sorry +2
tinylilron  does the decanoate make it a long-acting medication? +2
jlbae  frequency of injections - haloperidol decanoate = 28 days, fluphenazine decanoate = 21 days, risperidone LAI = 14 days +3
lindasmith462  oh sorry I didn't realize I was taking a PHARMACY school exam. my bad. like seriously what tf were they even testing with this question? +10


submitted by derpymd(20), visit this page
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I somehow got this confused with which vaccines to give an unvaccinated pregnant woman with chronic hepatitis C (HAV and HBV).

Also I think "health maintenance regimen" was the key phrase here

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tinylilron  This one confused me because I would also make sure she was vaccinated for all of these except Strep pyogenes (because I don't think that vaccination exists). Although, maybe you are correct, "health maintenance regimen" is the key phrase. +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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This distribution of rash in a medical assistant suggests urticaria (Type I HS) from wearing latex gloves.

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happyyoyo  she has allergic contact dermatitis which is a type 4 hypersensitivity reaction. Urticaria is a type 1 hypersensitivity +1
tinylilron  First Aid Step 2 CK says that Latex allergy is NOT a contact dermatitis--its a type 1 hypersensitivity reaction +7
lilmonkey  Her boyfriend should be informed as well to prevent further and deeper complications. +3
305charlie94  First Aid 9th edition Step 2 CK stated that Latex is a type I HSR, however the newer 10th edition now mentions latex allergy as a type IV contact dermatitis +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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This boy with AGMA and +ketones in serum has DKA, a common presenting symptom of T1DM due to inadequate insulin production. Serum sodium is normal after adjusting for hyperglycemia.

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tinylilron  AGMA??? +2
nayyyy  Anion gap metabolic acidosis +2


submitted by sasoo8888(4), visit this page
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I was confused why diastolic filling time wouldn't be correct. Hx of Mitral stenosis should mean that it takes longer for her left ventricle to fill up, right, so increased diastolic filling time?

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tinylilron  you have a good point +2
ronabobonafofona  I also thought this. But I knew for sure that Pulmonary artery pressure would go up, so I just went with what I was sure of. +1
lubdub  HR's fast. 100 bpm.. No time for filling there! The lack of filling time contributes to the pathology. +2
jlbae  If I had the power to, I would dub lubdub the resident cardiologist of this forum. +4


submitted by carolebaskin(109), visit this page
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Remember, thyroiditis also causes hyperlipidemia

Increased LDL receptors +/- triglycerides due to increased LPL activity

Post-partum + cholesterol + lethargy + boredom + sleep issues + memory = thyroid

Would also expect hypnatremia, weight gain

Postpartum thyroiditis usually hyperthyroid followed by hypothyroid

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tinylilron  I was thinking about her palpitations. I wonder if that could be caused by her hyperthyroid state before her hypothyroid state. +


submitted by medgirl11(20), visit this page
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Patient has symptoms of SIADH = low Na, which presents with small cell carcinoma of the lung

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tinylilron  I would think that SIADH can occur with ANY lung pathology. Thus making any of these etiologies plausible. However, First Aid Step 2 CK mentions that SIASH is present with small cell carcinoma. Therefore, I suppose small cell carcinoma has a greater association with SIADH. +1


submitted by carolebaskin(109), visit this page
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Clue cells = gardnerella = grayish discharge and does change pH (>4.5)

Others

  • Ferning = pregnancy / rupture of membranes, but she does not have male partners, so less likely

  • Budding yeast = candida = grayish, but does not change the vaginal pH (<4.5)

  • leukocyte sheets = ? Maybe erosive lichen planus / lichenoid vaginitis ?

  • Trich = green discharge, does change pH (>4.5)


https://vulvovaginaldisorders.com/the-four-pillars-of-vulvovaginal-diagnosis/table-elevated-ph/#prettyPhoto[6]/0/

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spiroskeet  Reason for pH >4.5 is that Gardnerella outcompete Lactobacilli fauna, which (as their name implies) pump out acid +
tinylilron  seriously green discharge vs. gray discharge? :-/ +2
nicspabi  "Cervicitis may cause a purulent discharge from the cervix. The discharge will not have an odor and will consist of sheets of white blood cells; the vaginal pH is variable" https://www.ncbi.nlm.nih.gov/books/NBK288/ +


submitted by kingfriday(45), visit this page
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honestly someone explain this one to me other than the memory loss is her newest thing and needs to be evaluated. pls

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tinylilron  I am confused as well. Is it because of the rapid nature of memory loss? +1
shastri96  Presbycusis presbyopia diminished ankle reflex Old age related tremor all are common old age conditions so they dont require urgent evaluation. +10
nayyyy  Also that she felt well and was not concerned about it? Maybe.. lol +2
lubdub  And the memory loss is leading to danger- leaving the stove on. Gotta get that in check. +2
lindasmith462  the most specific sx for dementia is impaired functioning in ADLs - getting lost in familiar surroundings is a SUPER common one. (lol I've def accidently left the stove on during step studying - stupid electric stoves) +1
whoopthereitis  I remember a UWorld question describing how loss of DTR at the ankles, aka Achilles reflex bilaterally, is a normal finding with aging--guessing the same logic for most of the rest +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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This patient with smoking history has euvolemic hyponatremia iso hilar mass, representing SIADH 2/2 SCLC. No signs of AMS so treat conservatively with water restriction. 3% saline is only indicated for symptomatic severe hypoNa.

Hiccups indicate phrenic nerve irritation.

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tinylilron  Are the hiccups related to his SIADH? +
wutuwantbruv  @tinylilron Most likely due to the mass itself as it is in the hilar region and therefore more central and able to compress the phrenic nerve as it passes down through the mediastinum. +
wutuwantbruv  Also as a note, 3% saline is used for severe HYPOvolemic and EUvolemic hyponatremia. NS is used for HYPERvolemic hyponatremia. +1


submitted by welpdedelp(270), visit this page
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She met the Centor criteria for empiric antibiotics, why was is culture?

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tinylilron  I think that if you do a rapid test for group A strep if it is negative you have to follow it up with a throat culture... I remember this from my pediatric rotation... the culture is supposed to be more sensitive(?) than the rapid test. https://www.uofmhealth.org/health-library/hw204006#:~:text=A%20t +
sassy_vulpix  As per UWorld : Adults : Centor Criteria : 0-1 : viral,No test reqd; 2-3 : RSAT, if positive antibiotics, if negative, we assume it to be viral so nothing; 4 : penicillin/amoxiciliin whereas for kids, we always need to follow up a negative RSAT with a throat culture. In adults, there is no need. +1
machetebetty  She doesn't meet criteria for empiric treatment (4 or 5 points); if she had, they wouldn't have performed the RST. She has 3 points- age, temp, no cough. Also, helpful for remembering (not mine but I don't remember where I got this) - Cough [trick is remembering, lack thereof] Exudates Nodes Temp Old r [or, "RST if 2-3"] +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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Intractable vomiting results in hypochloremic metabolic alkalosis due to loss of HCl. (B) is the only choice with elevated HCO3-. K+ is low due to elevated aldosterone activity from contraction alkalosis.

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tinylilron  Is sodium not affected (140) because aldosterone is able to compensate? For some reason, I thought that one could lose sodium with intractable vomiting too? +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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Vascular ring presents in infancy with biphasic stridor/wheezing that improves with neck extension. None of the other answer choices would persist for 5 months and still result in a happy, well-nourished baby.

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tinylilron  I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ +
tinylilron  I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ Also, is the baby not demonstrating esophageal symptoms because he is only fed formula at this time? +


submitted by medicalmike(82), visit this page
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Vascular ring presents in infancy with biphasic stridor/wheezing that improves with neck extension. None of the other answer choices would persist for 5 months and still result in a happy, well-nourished baby.

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tinylilron  I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ +
tinylilron  I did not choose this one because I thought a vascular ring compressing the airway would result in stridor... :-/ Also, is the baby not demonstrating esophageal symptoms because he is only fed formula at this time? +


submitted by carolebaskin(109), visit this page
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PDA gives continuous machine like murmur that crescendos at S2, so loud S2

Agree with sugaplum;

widened pulse pressure => PDA in newborn or regurg in adult

To and fro murmur = wave like = swishing back and forth = PDA

close with indomethacin

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tinylilron  why couldn't it be a Coarctation of the aorta? +1
jlbae  Coarctation would not give a widened pulse pressure. It would present as high BPs in the upper extremities and low BPs in the lower extremities. Also the murmur would be systolic. This "to-and-fro" murmur is synonymous with a continuous โ€œmachine-like", which is present in both systole and diastole. +2


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