It said it was fatal to males in utero, and the question asked about live born offspring. Since the males aren’t being born in the first place, I said 50% females and 0% males.
Pedigree = XLD (not all generations affected = X-linked, affects males and females similarly = dominant).
Affected fathers = 100% transmission to daughters, 0% transmission to sons.
Affected mothers = 50% to daughters, 50% transmission to sons.
Both parents affected = 100% transmission to daughters (due to father's X chromosome), 50% transmission to sons (due to mother's X chromosome).
Both parents affected each transmitting both to daughter (homozygous daughter) = 50% and more severe.
If condition is uniformly fatal to males in utero, then the 50% affected based on transmision (as above) will die in utero, and the 50% not affected will have live births. This means, risk of female being affected = 50% and risk of live-born males being affected = 0%.
Is the woman in the first generation 1(2) not affected because of incomplete penetrance?1(2) has to have the trait for the disease to develop in the future generation.