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Retired NBME 24 Answers

nbme24/Block 1/Question#31 (reveal difficulty score)
An experimental study is conducted to examine ...
Post-translational modification ๐Ÿ” / ๐Ÿ“บ / ๐ŸŒณ / ๐Ÿ“–
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 +14  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—boostcap23(42)
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Even if you didn't know anything about the gene mentioned they tell you the PROTEIN serves as a precursor for making the hormones thus it has already undergone translation and the only choice that makes sense is Post-translational modification. Additionally, mRNA means it has already undergone splicing and post-transcriptional modification as it would be called hnRNA otherwise. (FA2020 pg 41)

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 +7  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—nor16(70)
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POMC is a prohormone peptide chain.

It is translated and later enzymes cut this peptide in the subpeptides.

Transcription is wrong (i had this too...) b/c its not the mRNA that makes different peptide hormones. Moreover, what I see now is, that posttranscriptional modification is more or less splicing... so post-translat. modification. next time we make it correct ;-)

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medguru2295  This is a perfect explanation. I never knew it was the protein modified (I initially though alternate splicing too) +1
nerdstewiegriffin  Is this an example of polycistronic mRNA? +
paperbackwriter  @nerdstewiegriffin possibly (because it says that the original mRNA results in proteins plural, BUT the mechanism for POMC derived hormones specifically is not bc of polycystronic mRNA. Polycystronic means that you get multiple protein products from one mRNA, but in this case we get multiple PROTEIN DERIVATIVES from one PROTEIN, implying that there are some modifications/reactions taking place once we've already made ONE protein which change the protein into multiple diff. products. +1



 +5  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—link981(208)
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Keywords from Dr. Turco from Kaplan:

  • Replication- DNA
  • Transcription- RNA
  • Translation- Protein
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hungrybox  bruh this is like bio 101 lol +10



 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—medstruggle(21)
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Why is alternative splicing or post-transcriptional modification incorrect?

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tea-cats-biscuits  You just have to know that POMC is a pro-protein that must be cleaved; not sure if thereโ€™s anything in the stem that would really have given it away. +3
mcl  Dunno if this helps, but it says "this protein" (singular) is the precursor of two different protein products. This must mean that the modification occurs after the protein is made, which means after transcription and splicing has already happened. +32
ngman  Also I believe mRNA refers to after the splicing already occurs. If the protein products are from the same mRNA then it can't be alternate splicing. +2
medschul  They're cleaved by tissue-specific proteases +2
duat98  I think: Alternative splicing occurs with hnRNA not mRNA. You get mRNA from alternatively splicing the hnRNA. an mRNA can only make 1 type of protein. Since the question says the 2 proteins comes from the same mRNA it cannot be alternative splice or post transcriptional mod. FA 2018 page 43 has a good illustration. +7
tadki38097  Just general testing taking strategy i guess, but for this question i was torn between post-transcriptional and post-translational, but then i saw that alternative splicing was also a choice...because alternative splicing IS a post-transcriptional modification you know it has to be post-translational because you can't select two answer choices. +2



 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—suckitnbme(239)
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POMC is a prohormone peptide chain that gets cleaved into gamma-MSH, ACTH, gamma-lipotropin, and beta-endorphin. There's a nice figure of this in Costanzo (Fig 9-10).

It may help to remember that pathologies with increased ACTH (ie Addison's disease) can present with hyperpigmentation since MSH (melanocyte stimulating hormone) is produced alongside ACTH.

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 +1  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—avicenna(12)
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Watch this video for better explantation https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=kcanSKHSvOI

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leemax  wow! +



 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—asharm10(37)
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It's saying a particular protein is made from this mrna, this protein is used as a precursor to produce those two hormones. so proteins once made, they need post translational trimming of N and C propeptides to be active. like trypsinogen becomes trypsin else they are just inactive protein. So any protein to work they need to go through post translational modifications.

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 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by โˆ—ih8payingfordis(34)
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I was also torn between alternative splicing and post-translational modification but this is how I reasoned towards post-translational modification:

In primary adrenal insufficiency (Addison disease), you have increased ACTH production from POMC. And these individuals also get increased melanin synthesis because of MSH. Basically, you can't make ACTH without making the other stuff. In alternative splicing, you make only ONE product because you cut out the exons of the genes you don't want! A little long-winded but hope this help tie in the concept. Source: FA 2019 Pg 334

Fun fact: JFK had this disease.

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 +0  upvote downvote
submitted by alienfever(11)
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So if a long polypeptide string is generated from signle mRNA then cleaved โ†’ post-translational modification.

If modification happens at level of RNA which is cleaved into smaller mRNA that then give proteins โ†’ alternative splicing / post-tranSCRIPTIONAL modification.

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