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dentist
VS: progressive unilateral hearing loss, doesn't affect Rinne Test, associated with NF2 and actor Mark Ruffalo
Otoslcerosis is (usually....) progressive bilateral hearing loss, BC > AC.
source
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tallerthanmymom
If BC > AC in BOTH ears, why does he have hearing loss in only one ear?
My logic was that he probably had otosclerosis in both ears and then something extra going on in his right ear that would make it worse than the left. I still don't understand why otosclerosis is the best answer here.
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dul071
Finally!!!! Someone who ACTUALLY explains what the fuck bone conduction even is and teaches the whole topic. Here's the link for anyone else who struggled to find someone who takes time to explain this concept
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=cZYJL9Jg-3k
+4
chaosawaits
I also was very confused as to why BC > AC in both ears but he only has hearing loss in one ear. Regardless, none of the other choices explained conductive hearing loss so I chose E, but I hate questions like this because I'm right, I know what I'm talking about but I cannot have confidence in my answer which affects me in later questions.
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thomasburton
My reasoning was BC>AC so this must be a conductive problem (which to me means something middle ear or out) so usually I think something blocking air flow or impeding the ossicles. You can rule out all other answers as they are all causes of sensorineural (AC>BC).
+3
madojo
Meniere's disease is sensorineural hearing loss with peripheral vertigo due to increased endolymph within the ear.
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submitted by โmousie(272)
My understanding if BC>AC this is abnormal = conductive hearing loss = otosclerosis VS Sensoryneural hearing loss will have normal AC>BC = loss of hair cells